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No TEST
CODE
TEST NAME Method SPECIMEN TEMP. Performing Usage
414 9206RFX (ANA Blot)  ANTIBODIES TO EXTRACTABLE NUCLEAR ANTIGEN (Anti MI,Anti KU,SMITH ABS, nRNP/SM,SS-A (Ro) , SS-B (La), Anti Histone Abs, Anti Centromerem abs, SCL-70 IGG,JO1 – IGG Abs,PM-Scl ,PCNA,nucleosomes,ribosomal P-protein & AMA M2) IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY/
IMMUNOBLOT
SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS);                       -20°C (>3 DAYS OR SHIPPED) India ANA is useful in the diagnosis of patients with autoimmune diseases such as SLE, Mixed connective tissue disease, Rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome, Progressive systemic sclerosis and CREST syndrome. The incidence of low titre ANA positivity increases with age in normal individuals. many drugs like Hydralazine and Procainamide may induce ANA production.
415 8825 1,25 DIHYDROXY VITAMIN D Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA)  SERUM 2-8°C 14 days ; >14 days -20°C India 1,25­Dihydroxy vitamin D plays a primary  role  in the  maintenance of calcium homeostasis.  A part  of  circulating 25­hydroxy vitamin  D  is converted to 1,25­dihydroxy form  in  the kidneys. Patients who  present  with hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemi a  and  low  PTH may  suffer  from unregulated conversion of vitamin  D  from mono­hydroxy  to dihydroxy  form as  is  seen  in granulomatous diseases  like Sarcoidosis  and nutritionally induced Hypervitaminosis D.
416 3311 17-ALPHA HYDROXYPROGESTERONE (NEONATAL SCREENING) ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 days) India 17 ­ OHP is elevated in patients with Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia.
417 3190 17-ALPHA-HYDROXYPROGESTERONE ENZYME IMMUNO ASSAY SERUM F India 17 OHP along with Cortisol and Androstenedione constitutes the best screening test for Congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by either 11 or 21 hydroxylase deficiency. It is also useful to evaluate females with hirsutism and infertility.
418 9353 17-HYDROXYPROGESTERONE (17-OHP) > 1 MONTH FEIA Dried blood spots Ambient India To screen for, detect, and monitor treatment for congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH); sometimes to help rule out other conditions with similar symptoms
419 3313 17-KETOSTEROIDS,URINE CHROMATOGRAPHY / SPECTROPHOTOMETRY URINE 24 HOURS WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION.( MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY IS MANDATORY.) 2-8°C (15 days) India 17­ketosteroids (17­KS) are derived from adrenal cortex and testes and are excreted in the urine. These are metabolites of adrenal and gonadal androgenic steroids. In men, 60­70% & in women nearly 100% of these are produced in the adrenal cortex. They are useful in evaluating gonadal and adrenal disorders.
420 6027F 1p/19q Deletions, FISH FISH BIOPSIES SOULD BE FIXED FOR 24-48 HOURS IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN & EMBEDDED IN PARAFFIN. TISSUE SHOULD BE 4 MICRONS THICK & PLACED ON POSITIVELY CHARGED SLIDES. 3 SLIDES / SAMPLES CONTAINING MALIGNANT TISSUE. * TIME AND DURATION OF FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTIONED ON THE TRF.* clinical details in specified format A India Oligodendroglioma tumors exhibit simultaneous deletions of 1p and 19q in two thirds of cases. These deletions have been associated with a favorableresponse to chemotherapy with long survival.
421 8823L 25 HYDROXY VITAMIN D GOLD, LCMS LCMSMS 1] Require SERUM sample (to be collected in plain tube not in gel tube) preferably fasting upto 12-14 hrs.
2] Doctors Name and Contact details+ Clinical history of the patient is mandatory.
3] Sample should to be stored to refrigerate or freeze immediately.
Refrigerated/Frozen India LC­MS/MS  is  the gold  standard technique for accurate quantification of vitamin  D2  &  D3. It  also  measures 3 epi  25  hydroxy vitamin  D3  to increase accuracy of  the
422 9952 5-HYDROXY INDOLE ACETIC ACID ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY 24HRS URINE TO BE STRICTLY COLLECTED IN 15ML OF  6N HCL. * WHILE COLLECTING 24HRS URINE SPECIMEN, THE CONTAINER SHOULD BE KEPT IN DARK THROUGHOUT THE COLLECTION. TO AVOID EXPOSURE TO LIGHT, THE 20ML ALIQUOT FROM THE COLLECTED 24HRS URINE SAMPLE HAS TO BE WRAPPED IN ALUMINUM FOIL.DO NOT CONSUME AVOCADOS, BANANAS,COFFEE, PLUMS,  PINEAPPLE, TOMATOES, WALNUTS AS WELL AS SOME MEDICATIONS(e.g. ASPIRIN, CORTICOTROPIN, MAO INHIBITORS, PHENAZETIN, CATECHOLAMINES, RESERPIN, NICOTIN) 48HRS PRIOR TO THE COLLECTION OF THE SPECIMEN.MENTION CLINICAL DETAILS(PATIENT CLINICAL HISTORY, CT SCAN,USG & MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE REQ FORM.. FROZEN STRICTLY India 5­HIAA is a major metabolite of Serotonin excreted in urine. Normally 1­3% of dietary Tryptophan is metabolized to serotonin but in patients with Intestinal Carcinoid syndrome, as much as 60% Tryptophan is converted to Serotonin.
423 1674BB ABCD3 FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA | WB- HEPARIN | WB / SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY(WB to reach within 48 hrs) A India CD3 is an antigen expressed by T lymphocytes. There are two subpopulations of CD3 positive cells in the peripheral blood the T helper cells (CD3/CD4) and the T suppressor cells (CD3/CD8).
424 7833 ABPA MINI panel(Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis) ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India To detect
ASPERGILLUS. FUMIGATUS – SPECIFIC IGG]
and ALLERGEN – ASPERGILLUS FUMIGATUS in serum to aid in diagnosis of Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
425 7869 ABPA SCREEN (TOTAL IGE, SPECIFIC IGE AF) ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Screening test for  Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis.  To MEASURE Total IgE AND TO DETECT ALLERGEN – ASPERGILLUS FUMIGATUS in serum
426 5110N ABSOLUTE NEUTROPHIL COUNT AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER / MICROSCOPY WB-EDTA +  DIRECT BLOOD SMEAR A India Absolute neutrophil count is increased in infections, a variety of inflammatory disorders, cytokine therapy and some myeloid neoplasms. Neutropenia can be seen with various medications, including chemotherapy, toxins, bone marrow replacement (eg., metastatic tumor, granulomas), myelodysplastic syndromes, autoimmune disorders, and congenital disorders. Generally, the degree of neutropenia defines the patient’s risk of infection.
427 1336 ACETONE, URINE CHEMICAL ANALYSIS URINE -RANDOM URINE WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE 2-8°C (3 days); F (>3 days) India • Ketone levels are increased in patients with starvation, anorexia, vomiting and fever. Blood ketone levels are used as markers to determine the severity of acute illness.
• Presence of ketones in blood and urine (ketoacidosis) are indicative of type 1 diabetes. Ketone levels are used to monitor the insulin dosage in type 1 diabetes patients. The development of ketonuria within 24 hours after insulin withdrawal usually indicates a poor response to the oral hypoglycemic agents.
• Ketone bodies help in differentiating Diabetic ketoacidosis and Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Syndrome (absence of significant ketoacidosis).
During pregnancy, early detection of ketonuria is essential because ketoacidosis is a factor associated with intrauterine death.
428 5559 ACHR-ACETYL CHOLINE RECEPTOR ANTIBODIES(SERUM,EIA) EIA SERUM  FROZEN F India #N/A
429 1464BA ACID FAST BACILLI CULTURE ( BLOOD & / BONE MARROW) BACTEC METHOD BLOOD/ BONE MARROW INOCULATED IN MYCO F LYTIC BACTEC BOTTLE A India Rapid automated culture allows the early recovery of Mycobacteria within 7 days as compared to conventional culture which takes 4­6 weeks. Identification of Mycobacteria helps in proper selection of Anti­tubercular drugs.
430 1464EP ACID FAST BACILLI CULTURE: MGIT FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE ANY SPECIMEN of Non-Pulmonary Origin (except Blood & Bone marrow) IN STERILE CONTAINER/ TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE  / SWABS NOT ACCEPTED R India To help diagnose Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex and drug susceptibility testing if positive
431 1465 ACID FAST BACILLI CULTURE: MGIT(WITHOUT IDENTIFICATION) FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE ANY SPECIMEN (EXCEPT BLOOD/BONEMARROW) IN STERILE CONTAINER/ TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE /SWABS ARE NOT ACCEPTED R India To help diagnose Mycobacterium tuberculosis  complex
432 2419 ACID FAST BACILLI STAIN AND CULTURE  CULTURE- LJ ANY SPECIMEN (EXCEPT BLOOD/BONEMARROW) IN STERILE CONTAINER/ TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE /SWABS ARE NOT ACCEPTED R India To help diagnose the infection caused by Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex
433 1464S ACID FAST BACILLI, STAIN & MGIT CULTURE (3 SAMPLES) FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE SPUTUM/ URINE- STERILE CONTAINER R India To help diagnose the infection caused by Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex
434 1464U ACID FAST BACILLI, STAIN & MGIT CULTURE (5 SAMPLES) FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE SPUTUM/ URINE- STERILE CONTAINER R India To help diagnose the infection caused by Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex
435 5901 ACTIVATED PROTEIN C RESISTANCE CLOT BASED FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C *(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* with CLINICAL HISTORY F (To be F immediately at -20°c & transported in dry ice) India Vitro test for detection of defects of the Protein C pathway.
436 9315 ACTIVE VITAMIN B12 (HOLOTRANSCOBALMIN) CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (3days), > 3 DAYS (- 20°C_ India Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) in serum is bound to two proteins: transcobalamin (TC) and haptocorrin (HC). The transcobalamin­vit amin B12 complex is called holotranscobalami n (HoloTC). HoloTC contains the biologically available cobalamin as only HoloTC promotes the uptake of cobalamin by all cells via specific receptors. In comparison, approximately 80% of the cobalamin carried by HC is considered metabolically inert because no cellular receptors exist, with the exception of receptors found in the liver. The shorter circulating half­life of HoloTC compared to holohaptocorrin (HoloHC) makes a decrease of HoloTC one of the earliest markers of cobalamin deficiency.
437 7756 ACUTE HEPATITIS VIRUS EVALUATION I (HCV  ABS, HEV IgM, HBsAg, HAV IgM, HBcore IgM) Chemiluminescent Microparticle Immunoassay (CMIA) / ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (7 days) ,>7 days -20°C India Acute Viral Hepatitis is a systemic infection affecting the liver predominantly. Hepatitis A , B, C & E are common causes of Acute Viral Hepatitis producing clinically similar illnesses ranging from asymptomatic to fatal acute infections. Subclinical persistent infections of Hepatitis B & C virus may progress to Chronic liver disease with Cirrhosis and even Hepatocellular carcinoma.
438 7755 ACUTE HEPATITIS VIRUS EVALUATION II (HCV ABS, HEV IgM / IgG, HBsAg, HAV IgM, HBeAg, HBeAb) Chemiluminescent Microparticle Immunoassay (CMIA) / ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (7 days) ,>7 days -20°C India Acute Viral Hepatitis is a systemic infection affecting the liver predominantly. Hepatitis A , B, C & E are common causes of Acute Viral Hepatitis producing clinically similar illnesses ranging from asymptomatic to fatal acute infections. Subclinical persistent infections of Hepatitis B & C virus may progress to Chronic liver disease with Cirrhosis and even Hepatocellular carcinoma.
439 7757 ACUTE HEPATITIS VIRUS EVALUATION III (HSV IgM, CMV IgM, EBV (EA) IgG, VZV IgM) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay /Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8°C (2 days) ,>2 days -20°C India Viral diseases due to Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex, Varicella zoster and Epstein barr virus may share certain clinical features with Viral hepatitis and cause elevations in serum aminotransferase levels. Less commonly serum bilirubin levels may also rise.
440 1047 ACUTE MYELOID LEUKEMIA (AML) PANEL (CD7, CD19, CD13, CD14, CD15, CD33, CD34, CD117, CD41, CD61, GLYCOPHORIN A, HLA-DR) FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS   DIRECT SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY (MANDATORY) A India To help diagnose ACUTE MYELOID LEUKEMIA
441 3131 ADENOSINE DEAMINASE (ADA) SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM, PLEURAL FLUID, ASCITIC FLUID/PERITONEAL FLUID, CSF, PERICARDIAL FLUID, SYNOVIAL FLUID & OTHER BODY FLUIDS (EXCEPT URINE, SPUTUM, STOOL,SEMENS & MENSTRUAL BLOOD). + CLINICAL HISTORY MANDATORY F India This assay is useful for evaluation of severe combined Immunodeficiency syndrome and Hemolytic anemia of obscure cause. ADA is increased   in cases of Tuberculosis in approximaterly 20% of cases.
442 9921I ADENOVIRUS IgG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (5 days);                  -20°C (>5 days) India A four-fold or greater increase in Adenovirus specific IgG titre, between acute and convalescent sera taken 1-3 weeks apart, can be considered diagnostic for infection.
443 9924I ADENOVIRUS IgM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (5 days);                   -20°C (>5 days) India Presence of IgM indicates recent infection by Adenovirus
444 7589 ADENOVIRUS PCR POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION SWABS: (ORAL, EYE, NASAL) / RESPIRATORY FLUIDS A India This test is a broad  based DNA PCR assay targeting conserved regions (including all serotypes) for detection of Adenovirus from various clinical specimens.
445 8718 ADH-ANTI DIURETIC HORMONE (VASOPRESSIN), PLASMA ELISA Plasma EDTA  FROZEN F India Increased ADH is seen in hypovolemia, hypertension,severe physical stress (eg. trauma, pain, prolonged mechanical ventilation, surgery),SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion), Central nervous system tumours or infection and pneumonia.
Decreased levels of ADH are noted in diabetes insipidus and psychogenic water intoxication. Plasma ADH levels, especially below 1.62 pg /ml need to be correlated with clinical findings and other associated tests like plasma & urine osmolality, serum electrolytes and renal function tests for diagnosis & characterisation of Diabetes insipidus.
446 9938RD ADRB2 GENOTYPING FOR B-2-AGONIST RESPONSIVENESS PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Responsiveness ADRB2 gene on chromosome 5q31- 33, has been linked to asthma pheno-types. SNPs and/ or haplotypes in the ADRB2 gene have been associated with the response to inhaled ß- 2 -agonists, asthma severity and other asthma- related phenotypes. Due to temporal changes in the clinical status of patients (such as viral infections and allergy exposures) as well as due to the recognized genetic variability between individuals, there are complexities in the treatment and management of Asthma patients. Recently research based genotypic test for predicting the response to the short acting ß- 2 -agonists have been shown to be useful for identifying patients for earlier intervention with anti-inflammatory agents as an alternative to regularly scheduled ß- 2 -agonists.
447 9951U ADRENALIN URINE ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY 24HRS URINE (Preservative:15 – 20ML 6N HCL) . (The patient should not consume  Vitamin B, COFFEE AND BANANAS, 48hrs prior to the collection of the specimen.It is advisable to discontinue all medications, alpha methyldopa, MAO & COMT Inhibitors as well as medications related to  Hypertension should be discontinued atleast 72 hrs prior to specimen collection.If medications takenshould be  STrictly on the advise of the referring physician, the same should be mentioned.Please freeze the specimen immediately after collection. CLINICAL DETAILS(Patient’s clinical history, CT SCAN , USG & MEDICATION MANDATORY) mention 24 hrs urine volume F  FROZEN STRICTLY India Adrenalin measurements are indicated in autonomic neuropathy.
The concentrations of Adrenalin and its metabolites in urine are of clinical interest especially in The diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, neuroblastoma and ganglioneuroma.K53
448 9951P ADRENALIN, PLASMA ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY THE BLOOD SAMPLE (EDTA) SHOULD BE STORED AT 2-8 DEGREE CELCIUS UNTIL CENTRIFUGED TO SEPARATE THE PLASMA WITHIN 2 HOURS AFTER BLOOD COLLECTION.DO NOT CONSUME VITAMIN B ,COFFEE, BANANAS, ALPHA -METHYDOPA,MOA AND COMT INHIBITORSAS WELL AS MEDICATION RELATED TO HYPERTENSION FOR AT LEAST 72 HRS PRIOR TO THE COLLECTION OF THE SPECIMEN.MENTION CLINICAL DETAILS(PATIENT CLINICAL HISTORY, CT SCAN,USG & MEDICATION) OF THE PATIENT ON THE REQ FORM.. Separated Plasma to be send FROZEN STRICTLY India The concentrations of adrenalin and its metabolites are of clinical interest especially in the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, neuroblastoma and ganglioneuroma.
449 Z161K ADRENOCORTICOTROPIC HORMONE (ACTH) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy & Clinical details mandatory)MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Aids in the classification of pituitary adenomas and neoplasms with ectopic hormone production
450 3103 ADRENOCORTICOTROPIC HORMONE (ACTH) STIMULATION TEST – 1 HOUR CHEMILUMINESCENCE 250ug Synacthen IM/IV 3 Serum Samples Collected 1/2 hr. apart Basal (before drug) , 30min, 60min (Freeze the specimen immediately after separation) + Clinical History 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India The ACTH stimulation test measures the functional integrity of the adrenal glands and their sensitivity to ACTH stimulation. The test also indirectly assesses hypothalamic and pituitary function.
451 AM5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Amikacin BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Amikacin
452 CA5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Capreomycin BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Capreomycin
453 CLO5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : CLOFAZIMINE BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for  CLOFAZIMINE
454 ET5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Ethambutol BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Ethambutol
455 EH5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Ethionamide BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Ethionamide
456 IS5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Isoniazid BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Isoniazid
457 KA5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Kanamycin BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Kanamycin
458 LV5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Levofloxacin BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Levofloxacin
459 LZ5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : LINEZOLID BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD CULTURE R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for LINEZOLID
460 MX5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : MOXIFLOXACIN BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for MOXIFLOXACIN
461 OF5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Ofloxacin BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Ofloxacin
462 PA5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : PAS BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for  PAS
463 PY5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Pyrazinamide BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Pyrazinamide
464 RF5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : RIFABUTIN BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for RIFABUTIN
465 RI5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Rifampicin BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for RIFAMPICIN
466 ST5654 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY  : Streptomycin BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for Streptomycin
467 1464R2 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY, BACTEC : 10 DRUG PANEL BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test:                   STREPTOMYCIN
ISONIAZID
RIFAMPICIN
ETHAMBUTOL
PYRAZINAMIDE
SENSITIVE RAHULK1509
PARA-AMINO SALICYLIC ACID
ETHIONAMIDE
KANAMYCIN
OFLOXACIN
CIPROFLOXACIN
CAPREOMYCIN
AMIKACIN
LEVOFLOXACIN
RIFABUTIN
LINEZOLID etc.
468 1464R3 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY, BACTEC : 13 DRUG PANEL BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test
469 1464R1 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY, BACTEC : 5  DRUG PANEL BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test
470 1490 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY, BACTEC : SIRE PANEL BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test
471 5649 AFB  SUSCEPTIBILITY, BACTEC : SIREP PANEL BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test
472 1464RGM AFB DRUG SENSITIVITY: MIC TEST FOR RAPID GROWING NON-TUBERCULOUS MYCOBACTERIA (NTM) MICRO BROTH DILUTION PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED RAPID GROWING NTM ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Rpid growing Non-Tuberculous Mycobacteria Drug susceptibility test
473 9950 AFB RAPID GENOTYPIC TEST (MDR-TB)  (Note: This test is not applicable for MOTT) PCR- HYBRIDISATION Sputum/BAL/ MTB Culture Specimen A/R India  for molecular detection of drug resistance and detect all the known mutations responsible for drug resistance.
474 MX5655 AFB SUSCEPTIBILITY MOXIFLOXACIN (2.0 MCG/ML) BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD PURE FRESHLY SUB-CULTURED M. TUBERCULOSIS ISOLATE (ISOLATE IDENTIFICATION REPORT FROM THE REFERRING LAB IS MANDATORY R India Mycobacterium Tuberculosis complex (MTC) Drug susceptibility test for MOXIFLOXACIN (2.0 MCG/ML)
475 9957 AFB TB SECOND LINE DRUG, GENOTYPIC ASSAY  (Note: This test is not applicable for MOTT) PCR – REVERSE PROBE HYBRIDIZATION SPUTUM / BAL /MTB CULTURE  (SPECIMENS OF PATIENTS WITH AFB SMEAR LESS THAN 1+ ARE NOT ACCEPTABLE) A India This test detects mutations in:
a) gyrA gene (G88A/C, A90V, S91P, D94A/N/Y/G/H) responsible for resistance to fluoroquinolones like ofloxacin and moxifloxacin
b) rrs gene (A1401G, C1402T, G1484T)  responsible for resistance to Aminoglycosides/Cyclic peptides  (viomycin, kanamycin, amikacin and capreomycin)
c) embB gene (M306I/V)  responsible for resistance to the first-line drug    ethambutol
• Simultaneous screening of the above mentioned mutations is beneficial for rapid diagnosis and identification of XDR-TB.
476 4105S ALCOHOL (ETHANOL), SERUM ENZYMATIC/ SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM (DO NOT USE SPIRIT SWAB WHILE COLLECTING BLOOD SAMPLE. USE NON ALCOHOL GERMICIDAL SOLUTION TO CLEANSE THE SKIN AND STERILE DRY SPONGES SHOULD BE USED TO COVER THE VENIPUNCTURE SITE. THE SERUM SHOULD BE IMMEDIATELY  TRANSFERRED IN A CAPPED AND SEALED CONTAINER & SHIPPED TO SRL,MUMBAI IN REFRIGERATED CONDITION). CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (3 days); F (>3 days) India To determine if a person has consumed ethanol and to measure the level of ethanol in order to detect and evaluate impairment, intoxication, or overdose in serum
477 4105U ALCOHOL (ETHANOL), URINE ENZYMATIC/ SPECTROPHOTOMETRY URINE- RANDOM  SEND TO SRL MUMBAI WITHIN 24HRS  OF COLLECTION  IN A CAPPED AND SEALED CONTAINER.(CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY). 2-8°C (14 days) India To determine if a person has consumed ethanol and to measure the level of ethanol in order to detect and evaluate impairment, intoxication, or overdose
478 1391D ALDOLASE SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM (REFRIGERATED SERUM SPECIMENS TO REACH SRL MUMBAI WITHIN 24HRS, OR TO BE SENT FROZEN) (CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY). F India Elevated values are found in muscle disease such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy, dermatomyositis, polymyositis and limb girdle dystrophy. Aldolase level also increases in myocardial infarction in a time pattern similar to aspartate aminotransferase. Elevations may also be seen with gangrene prostate tumors, trichinosis, some carcinomas metastatic to the liver, some chronic leukemias, some blood dyscrasias and delirium tremens.
479 3105 ALDOSTERONE RADIO IMMUNOASSAY SERUM (Age, Gender, Clinical & Treatment history Required if patient is on Spirolactone or ACE inhibitors) 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India Investigation of primary aldosteronism (eg, adrenal adenoma/carcinoma and adrenal cortical hyperplasia) and secondary aldosteronism (renovascular disease, salt depletion, potassium loading, cardiac failure with ascites, pregnancy, Bartter syndrome)
480 3104U ALDOSTERONE 24 HR,URINE CLIA Specimen required 24hrs urine. No preservative.24hrs urine volume should be mentioned on request form.During urine collection, the 24hrs urine container should be kept in the cold condition. Frozen India Investigation of primary aldosteronism (eg, adrenal adenoma/carcinoma and adrenal cortical hyperplasia) and secondary aldosteronism (renovascular disease, salt depletion, potassium loading, cardiac failure with ascites, pregnancy, Bartter syndrome) from urine specimen
481 Z209K ALK-1 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK+ Site of biopsy and Clinical details MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India A subset of anaplastic large-cell lymphomas show overexpression of anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK-1) protein, resulting from a translocation involving the ALK1 gene. The abnormal ALK-1 expression can be in a nuclear and cytoplasmic distribution. Overexpression of ALK-1 protein is also useful in the diagnosis of lung adenocarcinoma and inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor.
482 3996 ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE ISOENZYMES (BONE FRACTION) SPECTROPHOTOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + (CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 days) India ALP isoenzyme studies indicate whether the total ALP is increased on the basis of contributions from liver, bone, intestinal and/or placental fractions.
483 8035 ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE ISOENZYMES ELECTROPHORESIS  ELECTROPHORESIS FASTING SERUM STRICTLY REFRIGERATED India Liver Isoenzymes : There are two liver isoenzymes, L1 and L2. L1 is increased in some non – malignant diseases (Such as cholestasis, cirrhosis, viral hepatitis and in various biliary and hepatic pathologies). It is also increased in malignancies with hepatic metastasis, in cancer of the lungs and digestive tract and in lymphoma. The L2 fraction exists in healthy subjects at low concentration (< 8 IU/L). An increase of L2 may occur in cholestasis and biliary diseases and in malignancies ( e.g., breast, liver, lung, prostate, digestive tract ) with liver metastasis.
Bone Isoenzyme : The bone fraction is interpreted with respect to age. Increase seen in :
• Breast cancer with bone or liver metastasis, Osteosarcoma and lymphoma with or without metastasis • Rheumatismal diseases, hyperparathyroidism, Paget disease and rachitism.
• Transient hyperphoshatasemia in infancy that is associated with a particular liver fraction .
• In such case the total ALP is highly elevated (> 2000 IU/L).
• When associated with an increase of other fraction (e.g. L1, L2) it may indicate malignancy of rectum, Lung and prostate (with bone and liver metastasis).
Intestinal Isoenzymes : They are absent in about 60% of normal subjects and when present are less than 14% .
Placental Isoenzyme :
Exists as P1 (90%) and P2 (10%). It is found during pregnancy & in some malignant diseases, e.g.:- ovarian cancers, sarcomas, pancreatic & stomach cancers. Increase can be also due to heavy smoking.
484 4008F ALL FISH PANEL: BCR/ABL t(9:22) + TEL/AML t(12:21) + MLL 11q rearrangement FISH BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [Please mention the clinical history, blood picture (CBC Report) and medication of the patient on the TRF] A India To detect following translocations in ALL patient: BCR/ABL t(9:22) + TEL/AML t(12:21) + MLL 11q rearrangement
485 3111 ALLERGEN – Acacia Tree Pollen (Latin Name:Acacia longifolia ; Indian Name: Babool) inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
486 3101 ALLERGEN – ALMOND    inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
487 3050 ALLERGEN – ALTERNARIA ALTERNATA/TENIUS    inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
488 4073 ALLERGEN – ANIMAL DANDER PANEL (Cat dander, Horse dander, Cow dander, Dog dander,Guinea pig epithelium,Mouse epithelium) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
489 3210 ALLERGEN – APPLE     inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
490 3053 ALLERGEN – ASPERGILLUS FUMIGATUS    inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
491 3383 ALLERGEN – BAINGAN (ALLERGEN AUBERGINE) (Common Names:Eggplant ,Brinjal ; Indian Name:Baingan) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India Allergy test
492 3087 ALLERGEN – BANANA   inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
493 3330 ALLERGEN – BEEF ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
494 3162 ALLERGEN – Bermuda Grass Pollen(Latin Name:Cynodon dactylon ; Indian Name: Dhoobghass) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
495 3335 ALLERGEN – BLUE MUSSEL ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
496 3341 ALLERGEN – BRAZIL NUT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
497 3083 ALLERGEN – CABBAGE ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
498 3051 ALLERGEN – CANDIDA ALBICANS ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
499 3213 ALLERGEN – CARROT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
500 3056 ALLERGEN – CASEIN ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
501 3085 ALLERGEN – CASHEW ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
502 3047 ALLERGEN – CAT DANDER/EPITHELIUM ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
503 3096 ALLERGEN – CAULIFLOWER ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
504 7768 ALLERGEN – CEPHALOSPORIN MIX ANTIBIOTIC (SERUM) ELISA SERUM F India Allergy test
505 3057 ALLERGEN – CHEESE CHEDDAR ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
506 3178 ALLERGEN – CHERRY CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy test
507 3388 ALLERGEN – Chick Pea(Common Names: Garbanzo bean, Bengal Gram;Indian Name:Kabuli Chana) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India Allergy test
508 3118 ALLERGEN – CHICKEN FEATHERS ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
509 3063 ALLERGEN – CHICKEN MEAT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
510 3055 ALLERGEN – CLADOSPORIUM HERBARUM ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
511 3153 ALLERGEN – Cocklebur Weed Pollen (Latin Name:Xanthium commune;Indian Names:Bichha,Kutta,Chirchitta ) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
512 3059 ALLERGEN – COCKROACH ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
513 3108 ALLERGEN – COCOA ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
514 3060 Allergen – Coconut ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
515 3331 ALLERGEN – CODFISH ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
516 3199 ALLERGEN – COFFEE ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
517 3161 ALLERGEN – Common Ragweed Pollen (Latin Name:Ambrosia elatior;Close to Parthenium-Congress Grass) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
518 3117 ALLERGEN – Common Silver birch Tree Pollen( Latin Name:Betula verrucosa) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
519 1404 ALLERGEN – COMPREHENSIVE ALLERGY PANEL – ADULT (Phadia Top Adult, LiST Of Allergens Include:Milk, Soybean, Cheese, Almond, Coconut, Wheat, Egg White, Chicken, Cod Fish, Shrimp, Tuna, Salmon, D.Ptteronyssinus, D.Farinae, Cockroach, House DuST Greer , Mugwort, English Plantain, Lambs Quarter, Alder, Birch, Cat Epithelium, Dog Dander, Cladoprorium, Aspergillus, Candida, Common Ragweed, Cultivated Rye, Velvet) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
520 3093 ALLERGEN – CORN ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
521 3390 ALLERGEN – Cottonwood Tree Pollen (Latin Name: Populus deltoides) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
522 3130 ALLERGEN – COWDANDER ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
523 3068 ALLERGEN – CRAB ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
524 3233 ALLERGEN – Cultivated rye Grass Pollen (Latin Name:Secale cereale ) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
525 3042 ALLERGEN – DOG DANDER/EPITHELIUM ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
526 3033 ALLERGEN – DUST PANEL (HouseduST- Greer, Cockroach, D.Farinae, D.Pteronyssinus) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
527 3376 ALLERGEN – ECZEMA/GIT (Non-veg & Veg) PANEL -Hollister-Stier Labs., Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus, Dermatophagoides farinae, Blatella germanica,Milk, Wheat, Rice, Soybean, Potato, Onion,Tomato ,Peanuts,  Egg White,Egg yolk, Cod Fish, Shrimp, Chicken, Mutton (Lamb) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
528 3375 ALLERGEN – ECZEMA/GIT (Veg) PANEL – Hollister-Stier Labs., Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus, Dermatophagoides farinae,Blatella germanica(Cockroach),  Milk ,Wheat, Rice, Soybean, Potato, Onion,Tomato , Peanuts,  ] ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
529 3043 ALLERGEN – EGG WHITE ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
530 3076 ALLERGEN – EGG YOLK ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
531 3389 ALLERGEN – Elm Tree Pollen( Latin Name: Ulmus americana ; Indian Name:Papdi Chibil) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
532 3159 ALLERGEN – English plantain Weed Pollen (Latin Name:Plantago lanceolata ;Common Name:Ribwort) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
533 3119 ALLERGEN – Eucalyptus Tree Pollen (Indian Names:Nilgiri,Safeda) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India Allergy test
534 3386 ALLERGEN – Extended Eczema Panel -Milk,Wheat,Rice,Peanut,Soyabean,ChickPea,Cashew Nut,Coconut,Banana,Brinjal,Lemon,Spinach,Tomato,White Bean,Cod Fish,Shrimp,Chicken,Mutton,Egg White,D.Ptyerossinus,Cockroach,Cat dander,  Dog dander,Cladosporium herbarum, Aspergillus fumigatus, ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
535 3405 ALLERGEN – Extended Rhinitis/Asthma panel –Adult{ Bermuda Grass, Johnsson Grass,Meadow Grass, Cocklebur , Common Pigweed , Common ragweed,Mugwort, Goosefoot,  English Plantain, Acacia, Oak, Elm,Cotton Wood ,Eucalyptus, Mesquite, Mulberry , Alder,Dermatophagoides farinae, Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus , Cockroach,Cat dander, Dog dander,Cladosporium herbarum, Aspergillus fumigatus. ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
536 3404 ALLERGEN – Extended Rhinitis/Asthma panel –Child { Bermuda Grass, Johnsson Grass, Cocklebur, Common Pigweed, Common ragweed, Mugwort ,Goosefoot, Rape seed, Oak, Cotton Wood, Eucalyptus, Mesquite, Mulberry, Alder, Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus, Cockroach, Cat dander, Dog dander, Cladosporium herbarum, Aspergillus fumigatus, Egg white, Milk, CodFish, Wheat, Peanut,Soyabean, Hosue dust Hollistier ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
537 3221 ALLERGEN – FIG CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy test
538 4012 ALLERGEN – FLEXI ALLERGY PANEL –  (Select Any 10 Allergen from available inhouse Allergen list) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen serum 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
539 4010 ALLERGEN – FLEXI ALLERGY PANEL – (Select Any 5 Allergen from available inhouse Allergen list) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen serum 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
540 2109 ALLERGEN – FLEXI ALLERGY PANEL – 2 ( Select Any 29 Allergens from available inhouse Allergen list) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
541 2179 ALLERGEN – FLEXI ALLERGY PANEL – 3 (Select Any 19 Allergen from available inhouse Allergen list) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
542 4081 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL – FRUITS 1 ( Apple, Banana, Pear,Peach,Orange,Pineapple,Mango) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
543 4087 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL – FRUITS 2 (Kiwi,Strawberry,Melon,Peach,Lemon,Orange) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
544 4082 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL – NUTS AND SEEDS ( Peanut, Cashew nut ,Pista, Hazel nut, Brazil nut, Almond, Coconut ,Sesame seed,Rape seed) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
545 4083 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL – VEG 2 (Wheat,Rice,Garlic,Tomato,Potato,Onion,Lemon,Mustard,Sesame seed,Chick pea) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
546 4085 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL – VEG 3 (Tomato, Yeast, Garlic, Onion) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
547 3031 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL 2 (Codfish, Tuna, Shrimp, Blue Mussel, Salmon ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
548 3075 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL 7 (Egg White,Fish, Milk, Rice, Peanut, Soyabean) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
549 4090 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL -LEAFY VEGETABLES (Spinach,Celery,Lettuce,Cabbage) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
550 4084 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL MEATS (Chicken,Mutton,Pork,Beef) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
551 4086 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL- VEGETABLES (Brinjal,Cabbage,Carrot,Cauliflower,Green pepper,Corn, Mushroom,Spinach,Tomato,Potato) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
552 4091 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL-PULSES  (Lentil, Chickpea, White bean,Green pea,Soyabean) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
553 4092 ALLERGEN – FOOD PANEL-SEAFOOD (Codfish, Tuna, Shrimp, Blue Mussel, Salmon, Crab, Lobster) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
554 3064 ALLERGEN – GARLIC ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
555 3065 ALLERGEN – GLUTEN ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
556 3354 ALLERGEN – Golden Rod Weed Pollen (Latin Name:Solidago virgaurea) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
557 3353 ALLERGEN – Goosefoot Weed Pollen (Latin Name: Chenopodium album;Common Name:Lamb’s Quarters ; Indian Name:Bathua ) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
558 3229 ALLERGEN – Grapefruit (Latin Name:Citrus paradisi ) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
559 4093 ALLERGEN – GRASS POLLENS PANEL (Bermuda Grass,Cultivated rye,Johnson Grass,Meadow fescue,Common Ragweed ,Timothy Grass,Velvet Grass) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
560 3058 ALLERGEN – Green PEA ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
561 3097 ALLERGEN – Green pepper(Latin Name:Piper nigrum) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
562 3349 ALLERGEN – Grey alder Tree Pollen (Latin Name: Alnus incana) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
563 3127 ALLERGEN – GUINEA PIG EPITHELIUM ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
564 3340 ALLERGEN – HAZEL NUT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
565 3148 ALLERGEN – HELMENTHISPORIUM HALODES CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy test
566 3133 ALLERGEN – Honey Bee Venom (Latin name: Apis mellifera) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
567 3137 ALLERGEN – HORSE DANDER ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
568 3044 ALLERGEN – HOUSE DUST GREER ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
569 3379 ALLERGEN – HOUSE DUST HOLLISTIER ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen serum 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
570 3036 ALLERGEN – House dust mite-Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy test
571 3173 ALLERGEN – House dust mite-Dermatophagoieds farinae ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
572 3164 ALLERGEN – Johnson Grass Pollen(Latin name:Sorghum halepense ; Indian Name: Jowar) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
573 3088 ALLERGEN – KIWI FRUIT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
574 3332 ALLERGEN – LAMB (MUTTON) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
575 3203 ALLERGEN – LEMON ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
576 3373 ALLERGEN – Lentil ( Common Indian Name: Masur Dal) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India Allergy Test
577 3200 ALLERGEN – LETTUCE ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
578 3336 ALLERGEN – LOBSTER ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
579 3207 ALLERGEN – Malt (Latin Name:Hordeum vulgare ) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
580 3054 ALLERGEN – MANGO ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
581 3168 ALLERGEN – Meadow fescue Grass pollen(Latin name: Festuca elatior) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
582 8127 ALLERGEN – MELALEUCA IMMUNOCAP SERUM FROZEN India Allergy Test
583 3209 ALLERGEN – MELON ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
584 3398 ALLERGEN – MesquiteTree Pollen (Latin Name:Prosopis juliflora ; Indian Name: Pahadi Keekar) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
585 3037 ALLERGEN – MILK ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
586 3034 ALLERGEN – MOLD PANEL (P. notatum,C. herbarum,A.fumigatus,C. albicans,A.tenius,M. racemosus,Trichophyton) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
587 3129 ALLERGEN – MOSQUITO AEDES ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
588 3138 ALLERGEN – MOUSE EPITHELIUM ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
589 3052 ALLERGEN – MUCOR RACEMOSUS ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
590 3160 ALLERGEN – Mugwort Weed Pollen (Latin Name: Artemisia vulgaris ;Indian Names:Barna,Sita Bani,Bano)  inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
591 3391 ALLERGEN – Mulberry Tree Pollen (Latin Name:Morus alba; Indian Name:Shahtoot) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
592 3201 ALLERGEN – MUSHROOM ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
593 3208 ALLERGEN – MUSTARD ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
594 3157 ALLERGEN – Nettle Weed Pollen (Latin Name: Urtica dioica ;Common Name: Stinging Nettle) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
595 1425 ALLERGEN – NON VEG PANEL (Chicken Meat, Codfish, Salmon, Tuna, Shrimp, Blue Mussel,Egg white, Egg yolk, Lamb) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
596 3351 ALLERGEN – Oak Tree Pollen (Latin Name: Quercus alba) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
597 3219 ALLERGEN – OAT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
598 3211 ALLERGEN – ONION ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
599 3030 ALLERGEN – ORANGE ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
600 1430 ALLERGEN – OUTDOOR PANEL  ( Common Ragweed, Golden Rod, English Plantain, Alder, Birch, Lambs Quarter, Nettle) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
601 5006 ALLERGEN – PADIATRIC PANEL  (EGG WHITE, MILK, SOYABEAN, WHEAT, HOUSE DUST) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
602 3135 ALLERGEN – PARROT FEATHERS ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
603 3205 ALLERGEN – PEACH ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
604 3077 ALLERGEN – PEANUT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
605 3086 ALLERGEN – PEAR ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
606 4009 ALLERGEN – PECAN NUT CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
607 3015 ALLERGEN – PENICILLIUM NOTATUM ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
608 4430 ALLERGEN – PHADIATOP ADULT (INDIVIDUALS ABOVE 5 YEARS) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week); -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
609 4432 ALLERGEN – PHADIATOP INFANT (INDIVIDUALS BELOW  5 YEARS) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week); -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
610 3385 ALLERGEN – Pigweed Pollen (Latin Name: Amaranthus retroflexus;Indian Names:Kaantewali Chauli) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
611 3081 ALLERGEN – PINEAPPLE ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
612 3202 ALLERGEN – PISTACHIO ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
613 3333 ALLERGEN – PORK ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
614 3107 ALLERGEN – POTATO ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
615 3329 ALLERGEN – RABBIT APITH ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
616 3400 ALLERGEN – Rape Seed(Common Names:Canola, Oilseed Rape; Indian Name: Sarson) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
617 3239 ALLERGEN – Red Kidney Beans inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
618 1428 ALLERGEN – RHINITIS/ASTHMA INDOOR INHALANTS PANEL (Aspergillus,Mucor,Alternaria Candida, House Dust, D.Farinae, D.Pteronyssinus, Cockroach, Cat Epithelium, Dog Dander) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
619 3377 ALLERGEN – RHINITIS/ASTHMA PANEL – Ambrosia elatior(Common Ragweed), Penicillium notatum, Aspergillus fumigatus, Mucor racemosus, Candida albicans(yeast), Dermatophagoides farinae(House dust mite), Dermatophagoidespteronyssinuse(House dust mite), Greer labs(house dust), Hollistier-Stier labs(House dust), Blatella germanica(Cockroach) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
620 3038 ALLERGEN – RICE ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
621 3343 ALLERGEN – SALMON ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
622 3092 ALLERGEN – SESAME SEED ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
623 3067 ALLERGEN – SHRIMP ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
624 3169 ALLERGEN – SILK ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
625 3061 ALLERGEN – SOYBEAN ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
626 3225 ALLERGEN – SPINACH ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
627 3106 ALLERGEN – STRAWBERRY ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
628 3346 ALLERGEN – Sweet vernal grass(Latin Name: Anthoxanthum odoratum) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
629 3167 ALLERGEN – Timothy Grass Pollen( Latin Name:Phleum pratense ) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
630 3212 ALLERGEN – TOMATO ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
631 4095 ALLERGEN – TREE POLLENS PANEL (Acacia,Eucalyptus,Elm,Mesquite,Mulberry,Cottonwood,Common Silver Birch) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
632 3141 ALLERGEN – TRICHOPHYTON ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
633 3342 ALLERGEN – TUNA ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
634 4433 ALLERGEN – Vanilla   inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
635 1414 ALLERGEN – VEG PANEL (Almond, Wheat, Coconut, Corn, Peanut, Sesame Seed, Cheese, Milk) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
636 3348 ALLERGEN – Velvet Grass Pollen (Latin Name:Holcus lanatus) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
637 3098 ALLERGEN – WALNUT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
638 4096 ALLERGEN – WEED POLLENS PANEL (Common Ragweed,Cocklebur,Goosefoot,Mugwort,Pigweed,Nettle,Goldenrod,,English plantain) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
639 3039 ALLERGEN – WHEAT ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
640 3091 ALLERGEN – WHITE BEAN ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
641 3402 ALLERGEN – White PineTree Pollen (Latin Name:Pinus strobus) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
642 3352 ALLERGEN – Willow Tree Pollen (Latin Name:Salix caprea) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
643 3090 ALLERGEN – Yeast (Latin name: Saccharomyces cerevisiae , Common Names: Baker’s yeast,Brewer’s yeast) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
644 4008 ALLERGEN -APRICOT CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
645 7788 ALLERGEN- HUMAN INSULIN ,SERUM ImmunoCAP (Fluoroenzymeimmunoassay)
(Specific IgE Test)
SERUM F India Allergy Test
646 8129 ALLERGEN INDIVIDUAL MARKER, OLIVE (FEIA) IMMUNOCAP SERUM FROZEN India Allergy Test
647 3236 ALLERGEN -Papaya   inhouse allergen ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
648 7775 ALLERGEN- PENICILLYOL G, (ANTIBIOTIC), SERUM ImmunoCAP (Fluoroenzymeimmunoassay)
(Specific IgE Test)
SERUM F India Allergy Test
649 7776 ALLERGEN- PENICILLYOL V, (ANTIBIOTIC), SERUM ImmunoCAP (Fluoroenzymeimmunoassay)
(Specific IgE Test)
SERUM F India Allergy Test
650 7772 ALLERGEN, CIPROFLOXACIN ANTIBIOTIC (SERUM) ELISA SERUM F India Allergy Test
651 7773 ALLERGEN-ACTH, SERUM ImmunoCAP (Fluoroenzymeimmunoassay)
(Specific IgE Test)
SERUM F India Allergy Test
652 7770 ALLERGEN-AMOXICILLIN (ANTIBIOTIC), (SERUM) ELISA SERUM F India Allergy Test
653 7771 ALLERGEN-AMPICILLIN (ANTIBIOTIC), (SERUM) ELISA SERUM F India Allergy Test
654 3366 ALLERGEN-BASIL CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
655 9310 ALLERGEN-BAY LEAF CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
656 3342I ALLERGEN-BLACK PEPPER CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
657 3341I ALLERGEN-CHILLI PEPPER CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
658 1408 ALLERGEN-COMPREHENSIVE ALLERGY PANEL – INFANCY (Phadia top infant, Individual Allergens: Milk, Soybean, Peanut,(Egg Yolk), Almond, Wheat, Corn, Cat Epithelium, Dog Dander, Rabbit Epithelium, Cultivated Rye, English Plantain, D. Pteronyssinus, D. Farinae, House DuST, Cockroach, Aspergillus, Candida, Caesin, Potato,Egg white) ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
659 3365 ALLERGEN-FENNEL CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
660 9307 ALLERGEN-OREGANO CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
661 9308 ALLERGEN-PAPRIKA CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
662 9309 ALLERGEN-PARSLEY CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM R/F India Allergy Test
663 2710 Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) Panel ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);  -20°C (>1 week) India Allergy Test
664 7777 ALLERGY – DRUGS PANEL (IMMUNOCAP) (SERUM) ImmunoCAP (Fluoroenzymeimmunoassay)
(Specific IgE Test)
SERUM F India Allergy Test
665 7818 ALLERGY PANEL ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India Allergy Test
666 5967 ALLERGY PANEL FLEXI-3 ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India Allergy Test
667 4904 ALLERGY SCREENING PANEL – 1 ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India Allergy Test
668 4522B ALPHA 2- MACROGLOBULIN NEPHELOMETRY 12 -14 HRS FASTING SERUM (LIPEMIC SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED)+ CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Alpha­2­Macroglo bulin is produced in the liver. Increased concentrations are associated with patients with some Chronic liver diseases, Nephrotic syndrome, and Diabetes. Decreased concentrations are associated in patients with Pancreatitis, Rheumatoid arthritis and Multiple myeloma.
669 RD1433 Alpha-1 Antitrypsin, Genotyping PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY Ambient India More than 40 phenotypes of AAT exist. The inherited deficiency seen most often as the ZZ, SS & SZ phenotypes is associated with Neonatal hepatitis & Infantile cirrhosis. In adults these phenotypes are associated with chronic lung disease including Emphysema & Chronic bronchitis.
670 Z072K ALPHA-1-ANTITRYPSIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Alpha-1-Antitrypsin (AAT) is useful in the study of inherited AAT deficiency, benign and malignant hepatic tumors and yolk sac carcinoma.
671 1512D ALPHA-1-ANTITRYPSIN NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + (CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Congenital deficiency of AAT is associated with early lung disease, Neonatal hepatitis and Infantile cirrhosis.
672 Z071K ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN /
LIVER CANCER MONITOR (IHC)
IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Aids in the identification of yolk sac tumors and hepatocellular carcinoma
673 3109F ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN / LIVER CANCER MONITOR CHEMILUMINESCENCE BODY FLUID ( Age+Sex+Clinical history ) R India This is a useful assay for follow up management of patients undergoing cancer therapy specially for testicular tumors, ovarian tumors and Hepatocellular carcinoma. It is often used in conjunction with Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) test.
674 3109C ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN / LIVER CANCER MONITOR, CSF CHEMILUMINESCENCE BODY FLUID ( Age+Sex+Clinical history ) R India An adjunct in the diagnosis of central nervous system (CNS) germinomas and meningeal carcinomatosis. Evaluating germ-cell tumors, including testicular cancer metastatic to the CNS in conjunction with beta-human chorionic gonadotropin measurement. An adjunct in distinguishing between suprasellar dysgerminomas and craniopharyngiomas. A supplement to cerebrospinal fluid cytologic analysis
675 7747 Alternaria alternata – specific  IgG ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);  -20°C (>1 week) India To detect IgG antibodies to Alternaria alternata
676 9148U24 ALUMINIUM, 24 HR URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE). AFTER SHAKING THE CAN TAKE ALQUOT (10-20 ml) URINE IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION WHITE BOTTLE AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE). 2-8°C (5 DAYS);        F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Estimation of urinary Aluminium levels is useful in patients with compromised renal function who are undergoing occasional dialysis to support their reduced renal function
677 9148 ALUMINIUM, PLASMA GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION COLLECT WHOLE BLOOD IN SPECIAL TRACE ELEMENT BD, K2 EDTA VACCUTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL   DO NOT SEPERATE   PLASMA 2-8°C (7 DAYS);  SENDING WHOLE BLOOD SAMPLES UNDER COLD CONDITIONS (2-8°C) IS MANDATORY India This is the preferred test for routine Aluminium screening. It is specially useful for monitoring Aluminium toxicity in patients undergoing dialysis. It also helps to monitor metallic prosthetic implant ware. Aluminium overload leads to accumulation in brain and bone. Brain deposition has been implicated as a cause of dialysis dementia.
678 9148U ALUMINIUM, URINE SPOT GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN METAL FREE (10-20 ML) SCINTILLATION WHITE  BOTTLE AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE). VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS);       F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Estimation of urinary Aluminium levels is useful in patients with compromised renal function who are undergoing occasional dialysis to support their reduced renal function
679 1102 AMA (ANTI MITOCHONDRIAL ANTIBODIES) WITH TITRE (Reflex to end titre to all positive cases) IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS);                       -20°C (>3 DAYS OR SHIPPED) India Mitochondrial antibody is present in approximately > 90% patients with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis. This assay is not useful for indicating the prognosis of the disease or monitoring the course of the disease.
680 4631 AMINO ACIDS, PLASMA Method : Capillary Gas Chromatography Mass Spectrometry Instruction:
1.  Specimen requirement : 4.0 ml    Heparinized Plasma  (Reqd. Clinical History, Age & Gender of the patient)
2. Transport & Storage temperature : Frozen
FROZEN India This assay is used for evaluating patients with possible Inborn errors of metabolism. It may also aid in evaluation of endocrine disorders, liver diseases, muscle diseases, neoplastic diseases, neurological disorders, nutritional disturbances,  renal failure and burns.
681 4631U24 AMINO ACIDS,24HRS URINE Gas Chromatography Mass Spectrometry  Transport & Storag Transport & Storage temperature : FrozenInstruction:
1.  Specimen requirement :
a. 20.0 ml  Urine aliquot from 24hrs urine sample,  in sterile container (Reqd. Clinical History,  Age & Gender of the patient).Mention 24hrs urine volume on the request form temperature.
FROZEN India This assay is used for evaluating patients with possible Inborn errors of metabolism. It may also aid in evaluation of endocrine disorders, liver diseases, muscle diseases, neoplastic diseases, neurological disorders, nutritional disturbances,  renal failure and burns.
682 4631U AMINO ACIDS,RANDOM URINE Gas Chromatography Mass Spectrometry  Specimen requirement :
a. 20.0 ml  random urine sample,  in sterile container (Reqd. Clinical History,  Age & Gender of the patient)n requirement :
FROZEN India This assay is used for evaluating patients with possible Inborn errors of metabolism. It may also aid in evaluation of endocrine disorders, liver diseases, muscle diseases, neoplastic diseases, neurological disorders, nutritional disturbances, renal failure and burns.
683 9975U24 AMINOLEVULINIC ACID,URINE 24 hrs ION EXCHANGE CHROMATOGRAPHY /SPECTROPHOTOMETRY URINE -24 HOURS WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION. TO BE PROTECT FROM LIGHT, THE URINE SPECIMEN NEEDS TO BE COLLECTED IN A DARKED COLOURED BOTTLE. ( MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (4DAYS);  F (1 MONTH) India Delta Amino levulinic Acid shows a marked increase in cases of Porphyrias during an acute attack. The levels fall to normal after the acute episode except in cases of Acute intermittent porphyria and Hereditary coproporphyria.
684 9975 AMINOLEVULINIC ACID,URINE RANDOM ION EXCHANGE CHROMATOGRAPHY /SPECTROPHOTOMETRY RANDOM URINE  WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION.TO BE PROTECT FROM LIGHT, THE URINE SPECIMEN NEEDS TO BE COLLECTED IN A DARKED COLOURED BOTTLE. ( PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (4DAYS);  F (1 MONTH) India Delta Amino levulinic Acid shows a marked increase in cases of Porphyrias during an acute attack. The levels fall to normal after the acute episode except in cases of Acute intermittent porphyria and Hereditary coproporphyria.
685 4007F AML FISH PANEL:  PML Ra Ra t(15:17) + Inv 16 + AML1/ETO t(8:21) FISH WB OR BONE MARROW – SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [Please mention the CLINICAL HISTORY, blood picture (CBC Report) and medication of the patient on the TRF] A India To detect followign translocations in AML patient: PML Ra Ra t(15:17) + Inv 16 + AML1/ETO t(8:21)
686 7900 AML PANEL – Karyotyping Reflex to FISH CELL CULTURE/FISH BONE MARROW/WB WB (≥70% blast cell) SODIUM HEPARIN  SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT,(CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF IN SPECIMEN COLUMN A India In acute myeloid leukemia, the karyotype of the leukemic cell is the most powerful predictor of treatment outcome.
687 4303 AML with C KIT(FLT3+NPM1+C KIT) PCR – Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY A India  c-kit mutations have been reported as a novel adverse prognostic factor of acute myeloid leukemia
688 9303 AML with Normal Cytogenetics (FLT3, NPM1, CEBPA) PCR – Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This panel may be used for Risk stratification in AML / ALL. The recommended tests as below: AML: BCR­ABL, PML­RARA, AML­ETO, INV16, NPM1, FLT3. ALL: BCR­ABL, MLL­AF9, MLL­AF4, MLL­ENL, t(12;21),t(l;19).
689 6008F AMLI / ETO t(8:21) FISH WB OR BONE MARROW – SODIUM HEPARIN. SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India The (8;21) translocation occurs in approximately 5% of AML & is usually associated with a high rate of complete remission and longer overall survival in AML subtype M2.
690 4811 AMYLOID A (SERUM, NEPHELOMETRY) NEPHELOMETRY SERUM FROZEN/REFRIGERATED India The determination of SAA is useful for diagnosing inflammatory processes, assessing their activity as well as monitoring these processes and their treatment.
691 1360 ANC COMBO – ANTENATAL PROFILE & TPC (CBC, Blood Group, Glucose Fasting, Urinalysis, HIV 1 & 2, Abs, Hepatitis B,VDRL,TPC) AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER/ SPECTROPHOTOMETRY / DIPSTICK & MICROSCOPY/ CHEMILUMINESCENCE /CMIA/FLOCCULATION 10-12 HRS FASTING PLASMA – FLUORIDE , URINE FASTING, SERUM FASTING, EDTA (W.B ) + 2 SMEARS + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) EDTA WB : Ambient 2-8°C (<48 HRS); F (> 48 HRS); FLUORIDE PLASMA : 2-8°C (3 DAYS); URINE : 2-8°C( 24 HRS) India Antenatal tests are important tools for protecting the health of a pregnant woman and her child. Various tests are performed over the course of pregnancy  to determine if the mother has any health conditions that may interfere with normal development of the fetus or if the fetus has any health conditions that may affect the baby’s quality of life. These tests help to identify factors requiring special care.
692 9207RFX ANCA POSITIVE REFLEX MPO, PR3 ANTIBODIES IFA /FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);                       -20°C (longer)/ FOR MPO, PR3 2-8°C (2 DAYS);                       -20°C (> 2 DAYS) India To help detect, diagnose, and sometimes monitor certain forms of systemic vasculitis (an autoimmune disorder that causes inflammation of blood vessels)
693 3113 ANDROSTENEDIONE CHEMILUMINESCENCE FASTING ,SERUM TO BE DRAWN BEFORE 1200 NOON. (AGE+GENDER+CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED ) 2-8°C (24 hrs); F ( >24 hrs) India This assay is useful in the diagnosis and differential diagnosis of Hyperandrogenis m. It is a crucial sex steroid precursor. In conjunction with other androgenic precursors, it is used in the diagnosis / monitoring of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia. It is also useful in diagnosis of Premature adrenarche.
694 5832F1 ANEUPLOIDY SCREENING-2 PROBES, FISH AMNIOTIC FLUID FISH AMINOTIC FLUID + DULY FILLED AMNIOTIC FLIUD TRF + CLINICAL HISTORY. CONSENT FORM – GWITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN SHOULD REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION IN STERILE CONDITION. A India To detect aneuploidy of 13, 18, 21, X, and Y
695 3114D ANGIOTENSIN CONVERTING ENZYME (ACE) SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM + (CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2 – 8°C (1 MONTH) India This assay is used for evaluation of patients with suspected Sarcoidosis. ACE activity reflects the severity of Sarcoidosis showing 68% positivity in stage I of the disease, 86% in stage II and 91% in stage III. There is a marked decrease in ACE activity in patients of Sarcoidosis on Prednisone therapy. It may also be increased in Gaucher disease, Leprosy, Psoriasis, Amyloidosis and Histoplasmosis.
696 9124 ANTENATAL CHECK AUTOMATED CELL  COUNTER / AUTOMATED (PHOTOMETRICAL CAPILLARY STOPPED FLOW KINETIC ANALYSIS) / MANUAL (MODIFIED WESTERGREN)  / SPECTROPHOTOMETRY / DIPSTICK & MICROSCOPY/Chemiluminescent Microparticle Immunoassay (CMIA) SERUM+ EDTA WB + citrate black top +SMEAR+ 10-12 HRS FASTING PLASMA – FLUORIDE, URINE FASTING + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) A,  FLUORIDE PLASMA : 2-8°C (3 DAYS); URINE : 2-8°C( 24 HRS) India Antenatal tests are important tools for protecting the health of a pregnant woman and her child. Various tests are performed over the course of pregnancy  to determine if the mother has any health conditions that may interfere with normal development of the fetus or if the fetus has any health conditions that may affect the baby’s quality of life. These tests help to identify factors requiring special care.
697 5069 ANTI BULLOUS PEMPHIGOID ANTIBODY 180(ANTI BP 180) ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOSORBENT ASSAY (ELISA) SERUM FROZEN India Initial screening test in the diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid
698 5070 ANTI BULLOUS PEMPHIGOID ANTIBODY 230 (ANTI BP 230) ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOSORBENT ASSAY (ELISA) SERUM FROZEN India Initial screening test in the diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid.
699 1202 ANTI CENTROMERE ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India Centromere antibodies occur primarily in patients with CREST syndrome but may also be seen in some patients with Primary biliary cirrhosis, Rheumatoid arthritis and LE. This assay is used as an aid in the diagnosis of CREST syndrome and for evaluating patients with clinical presentation compatible with Systemic sclerosis.
700 3885 ANTI Dnase B NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (>8 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India DNase B antibody is useful in patients with Group A streptococcal infection. It may persist for as long as 3 months. Comparison of the titres of acute and convalescent specimens is useful for  diagnosis of Group A streptococcal infection.
701 1177I ANTI EPIDERMAL / PEMPHIGUS ANTIBODY IFA SERUM FROZEN India Autoantibodies are directed against the keratinocyte cell surface in patients with Pemphigus vulgaris. Approximately 50% of patients with Bullous pemphigoid express autoantibodies directed  against the basement membrane of stratifed squamous epithelium.
702 1287 ANTI GLIADIN II- IGA (DGP) ANTIBODIES FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (2days);  -20°C (>2 days) India  anti-Gliadin antibodies are the earliest serological markers to diagnose celiac disease.
703 1135I ANTI GLOMERULAR BASEMENT MEMBRANE IgG ANTIBODIES (ANTI GBM) FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (2days);  -20°C (>2 days) India GBM antibody mediated Glomerulonephritis and Goodpastures syndrome occur with bimodal age distribution mainly in males. This assay is useful for evaluating patients with rapid onset renal failure or pulmonary hemorrhage. It also aids in the diagnosis of Goodpastures syndrome.
704 1203 ANTI HISTONES ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India Histone antibody is present in 80­95% patients with Drug induced SLE, 20­50% patients with Idiopathic SLE and infrequently in patients with other autoimmune connective tissue diseases.
705 4834 ANTI HUMAN TISSUE TRANSGLUTAMINASE ANTIBODY (IgG) EIA Serum Frozen India -Evaluating patients suspected of having celiac disease, including patients with compatible clinical symptoms, patients with atypical symptoms, and individuals at increased risk (family history, previous diagnosis with associated disorder, positivity for HLA DQ2 and/or DQ8

-Screening test for dermatitis herpetiformis, in conjunction with endomysial antibody test

-Monitoring adherence to gluten-free diet in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis and celiac disease

706 3191 ANTI INSULIN ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs),  F (> 48 hrs) India Insulin antibody is useful in assessing lower titers of autoantibody in diabetic patients, detecting insulin autoantibody in prediabetics and other autoimmune disorders.
707 1166 ANTI ISLET CELL ANTIBODY IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (FEWDAYS);         -20°C (LONGER) India Islet cell Antibody measurement is a sensitive means to assess risk and predict onset of Type 1 Diabetes.
708 1166T ANTI ISLET CELL ANTIBODY WITH TITRE IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (FEWDAYS);               -20°C (LONGER) India An early detection of circulating ICA is important in order to identify the individuals in the general population, the siblings and families of IDDM patients, who are at a higher risk of developing this disease because of their genetic predisposition to diabetes. There is a direct correlation between the antibody titre and severity of autoimmune process.
709 4908 ANTI MAG (MYELIN ASSOCIATED GLYCOPROTEIN) AB Indirect Immunofluorescence Serum Frozen India Detection of MAG antibodies is associated with demyelinating sensorimotor neuropathies associated with multiple sclerosis, inflammatory neuropathies, and motor neuron diseases
710 2244 ANTI NMDA RECEPTOR ENCEPHALITIS IGG ANTIBODIES IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM OR CSF + CLINICAL HISTORY 2-8°C  / REFRIGERATED India Auto antibodies against glutamate receptors (NMDA type) are specific markers for anti glutamate receptor type encephalitis. This is an inflammatory encephalopathic autoimmune disease and still widely under diagnosed. This is frequently associated with ovarian and testicular teratomas.
711 1180 ANTI OVARY ANTIBODIES IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (ONE WEEK);             -20°C (LONGER) India The test is used to detect anti ovarian antibodies of IgG, IgM and IgA class in patients with premature ovarian failure.
712 1180T ANTI OVARY ANTIBODIES TITRES IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (ONE WEEK);             -20°C (LONGER) India The test is used to detect anti ovarian antibodies of IgG, IgM and IgA class in patients with premature ovarian failure.The presence of granular  fluorescence  in cytoplasm of the theca cells in follicle area indicates the presence of anti ovarian antibodies with reactivity at 1 :10 titer while absence of fluorescence in cytoplasm of theca cells indicate sample is negative for antiovarian antibodies. Quantitative evaluation is done on the basis of titers.
713 1101 ANTI PARIETAL CELL ANTIBODY (APCA) IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (FEWDAYS);         -20°C (LONGER) India Parietal  cell antibodies  are found  in  70– 90% patients  with Pernicious anemia, 50% individuals  with Gastric  atrophy without  pernicious anemia  and  upto 15%  of unselected  adult population. This assay  is  useful for  evaluating patients suspected  of having  Pernicious anemia or immune meditated deficiency of vitamin  B12  with or  without Megaloblastic anemia.
714 1101T ANTI PARIETAL CELL ANTIBODY (APCA) WITH TITRE IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (FEWDAYS);         -20°C (LONGER) India Mitochondrial antibody is present in approximately > 90% patients with   Primary Biliary Cirrhosis. This assay is not useful for indicating the prognosis of the disease or monitoring the course of the disease.
715 1080A ANTI PHOSPHOLIPID SYNDROME PANEL (Lupus Anticoagulant Screen, Cardiolipin IgG & IgM ABS, Anti-phospholipid IgG & IgM Abs) CLOT BASED & ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C + SERUM (R) + CLINICAL HISTORY+ H/O ORAL ANTI COAGULANT (PT. SHOULD BE OFF ANTICOAGULATION FOR 7 DAYS) *(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* Lupus : Frozen (F immediately at -20°c  & transported in dry ice)  / A India This  test  is  used to  diagnose Antiphospholipid syndrome  in patients with recent miscarriage, pulmonary hypertension, non­vegetative
716 1111 ANTI SACCHAROMYCES CEREVISIAE (ASCA), IgA ANTIBODIES FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY(FEIA) SERUM Frozen -20°C) India Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever and Dengue Shock Syndrome are caused by infection of RNA Flavivirus transmitted by a mosquito vector. This test differentiates between Primary and Secondaryinfection. Paired acute and convalescent specimens that exhibit a significant change in titer are useful to confirm clinical diagnosis of infection
717 1108 ANTI SACCHAROMYCES CEREVISIAE (ASCA), IgG ANTIBODIES FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY(FEIA) SERUM F(      -20°C) India Antibodies to Saccharomyces cerevisiae are found in approximately 75% patients with Crohn’s disease, 15% patients with Ulcerative colitis and 5% of healthy population. This assay helps in distinguishing between Ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease in patients suspected of inflammatory bowel disease.
718 3303 ANTI SOLUBLE LIVER ANTIGEN Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS);        -20°C (>3 DAYS) India   These antibodies are highly specific for Autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) and are present in 30% of cases. In 15% of AIH cases, SLA is the only detectable antibody. This test is specially important in those patients who are negative for all other autoantibodies.
719 5225 ANTI SPERM ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM F(      -20°C) India Sperm antibodies are associated with some cases of infertility. In couples with abnormal post coital tests, 24% males and 35% females exhibit sperm antibodies. These antibodies interfere with the binding of sperm head with zona pellucida of the egg.
720 5951 ANTI THROMBIN III ACTIVITY( Functional) CHROMOGENIC ASSAY FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C + CLINICAL HISTORY*(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA) F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India This is the recommended screening test for antithrombin assay. This assay is useful to diagnose acquired or congenital antithrombin deficiency. It is also used to monitor treatment of antithrombin deficiency disorders including infusion of antithrombin therapeutic concentrate.
721 5952 ANTI THROMBIN III ANTIGEN Immuno Turbidiometry CITRATED PLASMA(PLATELET POOR) + CLINICAL HISTORY F India Antithrombin III antigen is an inhibitor of several coagulation factors. Patients with low concentrations of Antithrombin Antigen may have a hereditary or acquired prothrombotic state. The Antigenic test differentiates a Type I from Type II deficiency.
722 2245 ANTI VGKC ANTIBODY IMMUNOFLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM  / CSF  +
CLINICAL HISTORY
2-8°C  / REFRIGERATED India Serum VGKC antibody have been detected in peripheral nervous system disease specifically associated with the clinical spectrum of acquired neuromyotonia (NMT) and cramp­fasciculatio n syndrome (CFS), and disorders of the central nervous system, including Morvan syndrome, epilepsy and limbic encephalitis (LE).
723 1000 ANTI-AQUAPORIN-4  / NMO ANTIBODIES (ANTI NEUROMYELITIS OPTICA), IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM/ CSF + CLINICAL HISTORY 2-8°C  / REFRIGERATED India Neuromyelitis Optica is an inflammatory autoimmune disease causing demyelination of the  central nervous system with degradation of the insulating sheath of at least one optical nerve (Neuritis nervi optici) and at the same time or few months later the spinal cord (Myelitis). Highly specific serum autoantibody markers are found very frequently in NMO, while they are not detected in Multiple sclerosis (MS)  or healthy subjects.
724 1236 ANTIBODIES TO EXTRACTABLE NUCLEAR ANTIGNES(ANA Blot)ANTIBODIES TO EXTRACTABLE NUCLEAR ANTIGEN
OR
(Anti MI,Anti KU,SMITH ABS, nRNP/SM,SS-A (Ro) , SS-B (La), Anti Histone Abs, Anti Centromerem abs, SCL-70 IGG,JO1 – IGG Abs,PM-Scl ,PCNA,nucleosomes,ribosomal P-protein & AMA M2) (ENA Profile)
IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India This is a quantitative assay for quantifying specific IgG autoantibodies against Extractable Nuclear Antigens in human serum. It aids in the diagnosis of certain Systemic Rheumatic diseases
725 4186 Anti-ECP (ANTI–EOSINIPHIL CATIONIC PROTEIN) ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 WEEK);       -20°C (>1 WEEK) India ECP levels are predictive of exercise induced asthma and the propensity to develop a late asthmatic reaction (LAR). ECP levels increase after allergen exposure and these increases are reduced after immunotherapy. Serum ECP measurements may be used to monitor anti-asthma treatment and help optimize drug dosing.
726 1260 ANTI-GLIADIN II- IGG (DGP) ANTIBODIES FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (2days);  -20°C (>2 days) India Ingestion of Gliadin peptides contained in wheat, rye and barley induce immune mediated inflammation of small intestine in genetically susceptible individuals with Gluten sensitive enteropathy / Celiac disease. This disease is more common  in first and second degree relatives of patients with Celiac disease, individuals with Down Syndrome, Turner syndrome, Williams  syndrome, Selective IgA deficiency and Autoimmune disorders. Usage of Deamidated molecule increases the specificity and sensitivity of the assay.
727 1295I ANTI-MPO ANTIBODIES (Anti-Myleoperoxidase Antibodies) FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (2days);  -20°C (>2 days) India Myeloperoxidase or perinuclear antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody is useful to detect several types of Systemic necrotising vasculitis such as Microscopic polyarteritis and Crescentic glomerulonephritis . p­ANCA is found commonly in Churg Strauss syndrome and 50% of patients with Ulcerative colitis.
728 1100 ANTI-NUCLEAR AB-IFA, HEP2, SERUM IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS);                       -20°C (>3 DAYS OR SHIPPED) India ANA is useful in the diagnosis of patients with autoimmune diseases such as SLE, Mixed connective tissue disease, Rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome, Progressive systemic sclerosis and CREST syndrome. The incidence of low titre ANA positivity increases with age in normal individuals. Many drugs like Hydralazine and Procainamide may induce ANA production.
729 4601 ANTI-PHOSPHOLIPASE A2 RECEPTOR (PLA2R) IGG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (14 DAYS);       -20°C (>14 DAYS) India This assay detects autoantibodies against phospholipase A2 receptors (PLA2R) which is useful in diagnosis of Primary membranous glomerulonephritis (pMGN). MGN is the most frequent kidney disorder with nephrotic syndrome. Autoantibodies of class IgG against PLA2R are highly specific for the diagnosis of primary MGN and can be detected in the serum of up to 70 to 75% patients.
730 1296I ANTI-PR3 ANTIBODIES FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (2days);  -20°C (>2 days) India PR­3 or c­ANCA antibody is often seen in Wegener’s granulomatosis, a necrotising granulomatous vascular disease typically involving the respiratory
731 1110 ANTI-THYROGLOBULIN ANTIBODIES (aTG) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India High levels of anti-Thyroglobulin antibodies are seen in sera of patients with thyroid disorders such as Chronic Lymphocytic (Hashimoto””s) Thyroiditis (76 – 100%), Primary Myxedema (72%), Hyperthyroiditis (33%), Colloid Goitre (8%) & Adenomata (28%).Positive thyroid autoantibody levels in patients with high-normal or slightly elevated serum thyrotropin levels predict the future development of more profound hypothyroidism. Low titers of thyroid autoantibodies may be observed in the absence of autoimmune or other thyroid diseases and are considered a nonspecific finding.
732 4185 Anti-Tryptase ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 WEEK);       -20°C (>1 WEEK) India Tryptase is a dominant protein component of the secretory granules of human mast cells. This assay is useful for  assessing mast cell activation as a result of anaphylaxis or allergen challenge. It is also used to assess patients with Systemic mastocytosis or Mast cell activation syndrome.
733 7898 APA (PHOSPHOLIPID) – IGA (SERUM, EIA) EIA SERUM F India To help investigate the presence of blood clots or an unexpectedly prolonged PTT (partial thromboplastin time), especially if you have had recurrent miscarriages; as part of an evaluation for antiphospholipid syndrome (APS); sometimes to help diagnose or evaluate an autoimmune disorder
734 4640 APLA TOTAL (Lupus Anticoagulant Screen, Cardiolipin IgG & IgM Abs, Beta 2 Glycoprotein IgG & IgM Abs) CLOT BASED & ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C *(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + SERUM (R) + CLINICAL HISTORY+ H/O ORAL ANTI COAGULANT (PT. SHOULD BE OFF ANTICOAGULATION FOR 7 DAYS) F (To be F immediately at -20°c & transported in dry ice) /2-8°C (3 DAYS), >3DAYS -20°C India To help diagnose antiphospholipid syndrome (APS); to help diagnose the cause of an unexplained blood clot (thrombotic episode or venous thromboembolism); to help determine the cause of recurrent miscarriages in women
735 RD1408 APO E GENOTYPING PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India The APOE*4 allele (E4) is associated with an increased risk of developing late onset Alzheimer’s disease. Individuals who are homozygous for the APOE*2 allele (E2/E2) have an increased risk of developing Type III hyperlipidemia.
736 1899 APOLIPOPROTEIN – E NEPHELOMETRY 12 -14 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (>8 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India  Can be used as a parameter for the screening of Type III hyperlipoproteinaemias and atherosclerosis
737 1901D APOLIPOPROTEIN A-I NEPHELOMETRY 12 -14 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Apolipoprotein A1 is the primary protein associated with HDL Cholesterol. Increased concentrations are associated with reduced risk of cardiovascular disease. Apolipoprotein B is the primary protein associated with LDL Cholesterol and increased levels are associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease. The ratio of these two correlates with the risk of cardiovascular disease.
738 1903D APOLIPOPROTEIN B NEPHELOMETRY 12 -14 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Apolipoprotein A1 is the primary protein associated with HDL Cholesterol. Increased concentrations are associated with reduced risk of cardiovascular disease. Apolipoprotein B is the primary protein associated with LDL Cholesterol and increased levels are associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease. The ratio of these two correlates with the risk of cardiovascular disease.
739 1900 APOLIPOPROTEIN EVALUATION [Apolipo A-1, Apolipo B, Lipoprotein (a) ] NEPHELOMETRY 12 -14 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -30 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Apolipoprotein A1 is the primary protein associated with HDL Cholesterol. Increased concentrations are associated with reduced risk of cardiovascular disease. Apolipoprotein B is the primary protein associated with LDL Cholesterol and increased levels are associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease. The ratio of these two correlates with the risk of cardiovascular disease.
740 9141U24 ARSENIC, 24 HR URINE HGAAS WITH D2 CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE).  24 HRS VOLUME SHOULD BE COMPULSORILY SPECIFIED .  FIRST SHAKE THE CAN AND TAKE THE 10-20 ML  ALIQUOT IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED  THE MEASUREMENT OF URINE VOLUME SHOULD BE DONE BEFORE ALIQUOTING. 2-8°C (5 days); F  (> 5 – 30days) India   Arsenic is widely distributed in the earth’s crust. It is used in some pesticides and industrial applications. Organic forms of Arsenic are normally present in certain food types. Inorganic Arsenic is carcinogenic to humans. This assay helps in the diagnosis of Arsenic intoxication.
741 9141 ARSENIC, BLOOD GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION IMPROVE/BD, SRL EDTA VACCUTAINER, WHOLE BLOOD 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F  (> 7 – 30DAYS) India   Arsenic is widely distributed in the earth’s crust. It is used in some pesticides and industrial applications. Organic forms of Arsenic are normally present in certain food types. Inorganic Arsenic is carcinogenic to humans. This assay helps in the diagnosis of Arsenic intoxication.
742 9141U ARSENIC, URINE SPOT HGAAS WITH D2 CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F  (> 5 – 30DAYS) India Arsenic is widely distributed in the earth’s crust. It is used in some pesticides and  industrial applications. Organic forms of Arsenic are normally present in certain food types. Inorganic Arsenic is carcinogenic to humans. This assay helps in the diagnosis of Arsenic intoxication. Since blood concentrations of Arsenic are elevated only for a short time after exposure, hence urine Arsenic is the preferred method of screening for Arsenic exposure.
743 1709 ASKA-SKELETAL (STRIATED)MUSCLE ANTIBODY,(SERUM IF) IMMUNO FLUORESCENE ASSAY SERUM R / F India Autoantibodies directed against contractile elements of striated muscle are found in 30% adult patients with Myasthenia gravis (MG) and 80% cases of Thymoma in association with MG. The antibodies may also be detected in Lambert ­ Eaton Myasthenic syndrome (5%), Small cell lung carcinoma (5%), Breast carcinoma, Autoimmune liver disorders and patients on D­penicillamine (25%).
744 1106 ASMA (ANTI SMOOTH MUSCLE ANTIBODIES) WITH TITRE (Reflex to end titre to all positive cases) IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS); -20°C (>3 DAYS OR SHIPPED) India This  assay  is useful  for evaluating patients with  chronic  liver disease  in whom the  diagnosis  of Chronic  active autoimmune hepatitis  is suspected.  It may also  be  positive in  Primary  biliary cirrhosis,  Chronic viral  hepatitis  and Alcoholic hepatitis.
745 2327 ASPERGILLUS FUMIGATES DNA DETECTOR PCR-SEQUENCING  SPUTUM / CSF / FLUIDS / TISSUES + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This test detects and identifies Aspergillus fumigatus DNA directly from clinical specimens
746 3261 ASPERGILLUS. FUMIGATUS-SPECIFIC IgG ImmunoCAP(FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY) SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);  -20°C (>1 week) India In vitro test for the quantitative measurement of Aspergillus specific IgG antibodies in human serum or plasma.
747 RD1478 ASS1 GENE MUTATION PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Confirmation of abnormal newborn-screen test results suggestive of CTNL1.
– Diagnostic testing for individuals with clinical and/or biochemical evidence of CTNL1
– Carrier testing for the reproductive partner of an individual affected with, or known to be a Carrier of,CTNL1
748 Z413K ATRX (D5) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India #N/A
749 DT5102 AUTOGEN (Blood Lympho. Culture, Lupus Anti Coagulant Screen, Cardiolipin Antibodies & Anti Phospholipid Antibodies) CELL CULTURE FOR CHROMOSOMAL ANALYSIS, CLOT BASED & ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY FASTING, CITRATED  PLASMA –  AT MINUS 20° C + SERUM, FOR CHROMOSOMAL ANALYSIS WB- SODIUM HEPARIN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY*(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA) F/A/A/A India Chromosome analysis helps in the diagnosis of a wide variety of congenital conditions. It helps in the identification of congenital chromosome abnormalities like Aneuploidy (Trisomy / Monosomy) & structural chromosome abnormalities. Testing for Phospholipid antibodies is indicated in cases of unexplained arterial / venous thrombosis, pregnancy with unexplained fetal deaths, spontaneous abortions, presence of unexplained cutaneous circulatory disturbance like Livido reticularis and presence of Systemic rheumatic disease like LE. This test is also used in cases of unexplained thrombocytopenia, Hemolytic anemia & Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis. Lupus Anticoagulants are heterogenous IgG or IgM autoantibodies which interfere with phospholipid dependent in vitro coagulation tests, particularly Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT). These antibodies are associated with thrombosis (arterial & venous), recurrent abortions, neurological & neuropsychiatric disorders. Cardiolipin antibodies are useful in identifying patients with an increased risk of thrombosis, recurrent spontaneous abortions and phospholipid antibody syndrome. Cardiolipin antibody may be elevated in patients with SLE and related autoimmune disorders.
750 2246 AUTOIMMUNE ENCEPHALITIS PANEL IMMUNOFLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM  / CSF  +
CLINICAL HISTORY
2-8°C  / REFRIGERATED India Autoantibodies against neuronal surface antigens are found in patients with autoimmune encephalopathies .
751 4895 AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS MINI (ANCA , SLA) ANCA ( IFA), SLA (ELISA) Serum 2-8°C (3 DAYS);-20°C (>3 DAYS) India To diagnose AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS
752 1019A AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS PANEL-1 (ANA, SMA, AMA, LKM-1) IMMUNOFLUOROSCENCE ASSAY/ Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM R India This assay is useful for evaluating patients suspected with Chronic Autoimmune Hepatitis (CAH) or Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC). Positive results for ASMA are consistent with the diagnosis of CAH. Presence of LKM antibodies with or without ASMA is consistent with Autoimmune hepatitis Type 2. Presence of AMA is consistent with PBC.
753 1019B AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS PANEL-2 (ANCA , SLA) IMMUNOFLUOROSCENCE ASSAY, Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM (R)+ SERUM (F) R/F India To diagnose AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS.
754 4894 AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS TOTAL (ANA, SMA, AMA, LKM-1) For LKM-Enzyme Immunoassay Serum 2-8°C (48 hrs);       -20°C (>48 hrs) India To diagnose AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS;
755 7906 AVIAN ANTIGEN HP PANEL  (PIGEON+IGG AF) ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India This test detects Aspergillus specific IgG antibodies and pigeon serum protein IGG ( feather and droppings)
756 1212M BACTEC BLOOD CULTURE  – (YEAST & FUNGI) BACTEC FLUORESCENT  METHOD  INOCULATED BACTEC BOTTLE (MYCOSIS) A India Rapid automated cultures can identify organisms from sterile sites much earlier and with increased sensitivity as compared to conventional cultures .Only when Yeast is identified, antibiotic sensitivities are performed.
757 1212AF BACTEC BLOOD CULTURE (AEROBIC & FUNGAL) BACTEC, VITEK AEROBIC AND MYCOSIS BACTEC BOTTLE A India To check for the presence of a systemic infection; to detect and identify bacteria in the blood (AEROBIC & FUNGAL)
758 1195M BACTEC CULTURE, BODY FLUID -(YEAST & FUNGI) BACTEC FLUORESCENT  METHOD BODY FLUID- STERILE CONTAINER / INOCULATED BACTEC BOTTLE (MYCOSIS) A India Common organisms causing infections are S.aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, S.pneumoniae, Enterobacteriaece ae, Streptococcus & certain Gram negative bacilli. On identification of the organism, antibiotic susceptibilities are performed that aid in selection of appropriate antibiotic for treatment.
759 9208RFX BACTERIAL ANTIGEN   (5) DETECTION IF NEGATIVE REFLEX TO CSF BACTERIAL CULTURE BACTEC CULTURE/ LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION CSF A India  Detection of following five bacterial antigen: HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE TYPE B ANTIGEN,
NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS ANTIGEN
STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE ANTIGEN
ESCHERICHIA COLI K1 ANTIGEN,
STREPTOCOCCUS GROUP B ANTIGEN. CSF Culture is done if above antigens are negative
760 9601 BACTERIAL ANTIGEN DETECTION (5 ANTIGENS) LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (FEW HRS);      -20°C (LONGER) India Streptococcus Group B and E.coli K1 are the two most common causes of Neonatal sepsis while in older age group the commonest isolates are H. influenzae Type B, S. pneumoniae and N.meningitidis A, B, C, Y and W135. Early identification of these infecting agents helps in providing patients with appropriate antibiotic therapy.
761 9601C BACTERIAL ANTIGEN DETECTION, CSF (5 ANTIGENS) LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION CSF 2-8°C (FEW HRS);        -20°C (LONGER) India Streptococcus Group B and E.coli K1 are the two most common causes of Neonatal sepsis while in older age group the commonest isolates are H. influenzae Type B, S. pneumoniae and N.meningitidis A, B, C, Y and W135. Early identification of these infecting agents helps in providing patients with appropriate antibiotic therapy.
762 9883 BACTERIAL MENINGITIS MULTIPLEX PCR (H. Influenzae, N. Meningitidis, S.Pnemoniae) MULTIPLEX POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION CSF/THROAT SWAB A India This assay is useful for the detection of Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae
763 9886 BACTERIAL PNEUMONIA PANEL (Mycoplasma Pneumoniae, S.Pneumoniae, Chlamydia Genus) POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION SWAB (THROAT SWAB / NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB) / RESPIRATORY SECRETIONS / BAL F India This assay is useful for the detection of Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Chlamydia Genus
764 7618 B-Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia MRD FLOW CYTOMETRY 2 ml bone marrow should be collected in both EDTA (lavender top) and Heparin tubes (green top). Sample should be transported at ambient temperature (DO NOT FREEZE) and should reach laboratory preferably within 24 hrs of collection. Filled history sheet, initial Immunophenotyping report/data and Flow Cytometry scatter plots reported at the time of diagnosis/presentation shall be sent along with sample. A India Detection of Minimal Residual Disease (MRD) in Acute lymphoblastic leukemia predicts outcome. This assay can identify patients at higher/lower risk of relapse. Detection of MRD is important for risk assessment and stratification of therapy
765 4068 B-CAROTENE,SERUM Spectrophotometry INSTRUCTION: FASTING SERUM (BLOOD TO BE COLLECTED IN RED TOP VACUTAINER TUBE) IN PLASTIC VIAL, WRAPPED IN ALUMINIUM FOIL. PLEASE FORWARD CLINICAL DETAILS ALONG WITH THE SPECIMEN. FROZEN India Carotenes are precursors of Vitamin A and highest levels are found in individuals ingesting large amounts of carrots. Moderate elevations are seen in patients with Diabetes mellitus, Myxedema, Hyperlipidemia and Chronic Nephritis. Decreased levels are seen in nutritional deficiencies including Anorexia nervosa, Malabsorption and Steatorrhea. Individuals with Lycopenemia show normal carotene levels.
766 Z271K B-CATENIN IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India  identification of β-Catenin protein. Beta Catenin is useful in the diagnosis of Desmoid type Fibromatosis and in the differential diagnosis of spindle cell lesions. β-Catenin is also expressed in a wide range of other neoplasms.
767 9907 B-CELL GENE REARRANGEMENT POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION/ FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA BONE MARROW /  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  / PARAFFIN BLOCK+CLINICAL HISTORY A / A /  A India A reactive, benign B­cell proliferation is characterized by polyclonal expansion of B­cells whereas a malignant process is often  characterized by a clonal expansion of a predominant B­cell population. In conjunction with histopathology study of lymph nodes, bone marrow and other tissue types, the detection of a clonal immunoglobulin heavy chain gene rearrangement by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is intended as an aid in the diagnosis of malignant B­cell lymphoma.
768 Z014K BCL-2 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY. IF TISSUE RECD. , THEN TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED. A India B-cell lymphoma 2 (BCL2) was the first of the translocation-associated proteins to be identified in lymphoma. Most cases of follicular lymphoma have a [t(14;18)] translocation, resulting in BCL2 overexpression. Overexpression of BCL2 in activated diffuse B-cell lymphoma may predict disease progression. BCL2 is also expressed in a wide range of other neoplasms.
769 Z254K BCL-6 ONCOPROTEIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India bcl­6 is a transcriptional regulator gene whose expression is seen in approximately 68% of ALK positive Anaplastic Large cell Lymphomas (ALCL). It is also expressed in Follicular lymphomas, Diffuse Large B cell Lymphomas, Burkitt Lymphomas and majority of Reed Sternberg cells in Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma.
770 5834 BCR/ abl Gene rearrangement (PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME) CELL CULTURE BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN + CLINICAL HISTORY.SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India The Ph chromosome causing the BCR/ABL fusion, is present in approximately 95% of CML and 25­30% of ALL cases.
771 5351 BCR-ABL 1 KINASE DOMAIN MUTATION ANALYSIS NESTED PCR SEQUENCING WHOLE BLOOD-EDTA/ BONE MARROW EDTA  TRANSPORT AT COLD ( 2-8°C), (SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS)+CLINICAL HISTORY) COLD (2-8 OR FROZEN (-20°C))/ 2-8°C) India Evaluating patients with CML and Philadelphia chromosome positive B-cell ALL receiving TKI, therapy, who are apparently failing treatment.
772 6001F BCR-abl t(9:22) (Philadelphia Chromosome) FISH WB OR BONE MARROW – SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION.. [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India The Ph chromosome causing the BCR/ABL fusion, is present in approximately 95% of CML and 25­30% of ALL cases.
773 1720 BETA 2 GLYCOPROTEIN IGG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (14 DAYS), >14 DAYS -20°C India  Anti Beta 2 Glycoprotein 1 (Beta 2GP1) antibodies are independent risk factor for thrombosis in autoimmune diseases and complications of pregnancy. Presence of these antibodies can also be helpful in the diagnosis of Antiphospholipid syndrome.
774 1719 BETA 2 GLYCOPROTEIN IGM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (14 DAYS), >14 DAYS -20°C India Anti Beta 2 Glycoprotein 1 (Beta 2GP1) antibodies are independent risk factor for thrombosis in autoimmune diseases and complications of pregnancy. Presence of these antibodies can also be helpful in the diagnosis of Antiphospholipid syndrome.
775 1058 BETA CROSSLAPS (BETA CTX) (CTx-1) ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy
with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours
following the last biotin administration]
+ Clinical History
FROZEN: UP TO 3 MONTHS India    Beta­Crosslaps is released into the bloodstream during bone resorption and serves as a specific marker for the degradation of mature type I collagen. It can be used to monitor antiresorptive therapy; treatment response is demonstrated as early as three months in contrast to Bone mineral density which may take two years to produce reliable results.
776 3143U BETA-2-MICROGLOBULIN CHEMILUMINESCENCE URINE (First void the urinary bladder, then drink a large glass of water and collect a URINE sample within 1 hour). Clinical History 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India This assay is useful for evaluating prognosis of Multiple myeloma. It is also used for the evaluation of Renal tubular   disorders where serum levels are low but urine levels are high.
777 Z073K BETA-HUMAN CHORIONIC GONADOTROPIN, (BETA hCG) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY. IF TISSUE RECD., THEN TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED. A India Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is a glycoprotein, which is secreted in large quantities by normal trophoblasts. It is present only in trace amounts in non­pregnant urine and sera but rises sharply  during pregnancy. HCG is composed of two non­identical, non­covalently linked polypeptide chains designated as the alpha­and Beta­subunits. The alpha­subunit of HCG is nearly identical to that of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone (LH). A germ cell tumor which is positive for cytokeratin, placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP), and HCG but negative for EMA and AFP is probably a choriocarcinoma.
778 3184C BETA-HUMAN CHORIONIC GONADOTROPIN, CSF (BETA hCG) CHEMILUMINESCENCE CSF R/F India Beta hCG CSF is evaluated to calculate CSF : Serum ratios to monitor presence of Cerebral Metastasis, response to treatment as also tumour recurrence amongst patients with gonadal tumors. This ratio is generally of significance in males with nonseminomatous Testicular Tumours. CSF:Serum ratio is greater than 1:60 and ratios less than 1:40 are suspicious for presence of cerebral metastasis.
779 8161 BIOFIRE  PNEUMONIA PLUS PANEL Multiplex RT PCR (FDA
approved)
  Sputum/Endotracheal Secretion /BAL Fluid in sterile container STRICTLY REFRIGERATED India N/A
780 8055 BIOFIRE BLOOD PANEL Multiplex RT PCR (FDA
approved)
Positive culture Bactec bottle ambient India N/A
781 8056 BIOFIRE CSF PANEL Multiplex RT PCR (FDA
approved)
CSF Sample in Sterile,leakproof, screw tight  Container. STRICTLY REFRIGERATED India N/A
782 8057 BIOFIRE GI PANEL Multiplex RT PCR (FDA
approved
Stool, Rectal Swab : Sample in Sterile, leakproof, screw tight  Container. STRICTLY REFRIGERATED India N/A
783 8054 BIOFIRE RESPIRATORY PANEL Multiplex RT PCR Nasopharyngeal/Swab/Throat Swab Swab in Viral Transport Medium.

Sputum/BAL/Endotracheal Secretion in Sterile  ,leakproof, screw tight  Container.

STRICTLY REFRIGERATED India N/A
784 1528 BIOPSY & IMMUNOFLUORESCENT ASSAY; (HISTOPATH + IgG + IgA + IgM + C-3 + C1q + FIBRINOGEN ON TISSUE) IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY / HP TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA (IFA) + 10% FORMALIN FIXED TISSUE (HP) + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Histopathological diagnosis of specimen including immunofluroscent assay ( IGG, IGA, IGM, C3, c1q and fIbrinogen on tissue )
785 1509 BIOPSY (BONE HISTOPATHOLOGY) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10%FORMALIN + SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS. RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India Histopathological processing of bone specimen with final interpretation
786 1509P BIOPSY (BONE HISTOPATHOLOGY) – PHOTO HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10%FORMALIN+ SITE OF BIOPSY+ CLINICAL DETAILS . RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India Bone biopsy staining with enclosed photo
787 1507 BIOPSY (LARGE TISSUE / SPECIMEN) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN+ SITE OF BIOPSY SPECIMEN + CLINICAL DETAILS. RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation.
788 1511 BIOPSY (MEDIUM TISSUE  / SPECIMEN) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN+ SITE + CLINICAL DETAILS. RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation
789 P0002 BIOPSY (PHOTO) – IFA HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10%FORMALIN+ SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India IFA of given specimen with enclosed photo
790 1502P BIOPSY (SKIN HISTOPATHOLOGY) -(PHOTO) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10%FORMALIN- SMALL + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation (skin)
791 1502 BIOPSY (SKIN HISTOPATHOLOGY) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10%FORMALIN – SMALL +  CLINICAL HISTORY A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation (skin).
792 1500 BIOPSY (SMALL TISSUE BIOPSY / SPECIMEN) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10% FORMALIN+ SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS. RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation;
793 1500P BIOPSY (SMALL TISSUE BIOPSY / SPECIMEN) (PHOTO) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE + SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS. RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation’
794 1528P BIOPSY KIDNEY & IMMUNOFLUORESCENT ASSAY; (HISTOPATH + IgG + IgA + IgM + C-3 + C1q + FIBRINOGEN ON TISSUE ) IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY / HP TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA (IFA) + 10% FORMALIN FIXED TISSUE (HP) + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Histopathological diagnosis of specimen including immunofluroscent assay ( IGG, IGA, IGM, C3,c1q and fIbrinogen on tissue)
795 P0001 BIOPSY(PHOTO)  – SINGLE (HP) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10%FORMALIN+ SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation:
796 1519 BIOPSY; BRAIN BIOPSY WITH SPECIAL STAINS (PTAH & RETICULIN) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN + SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS. RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: CT/MRI PLATES OR REPORT-PLATES ARE PREFFERED. A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation of brain specimen with two special stains (PTAH & RETICULIN)
797 Z202K BIOPSY; H&E SLIDE FOR REVIEW (MORE THAN 2 SLIDES / PARAFFIN BLOCKS) HISTOPATHOLOGY PARAFFIN BLOCK / SLIDE + CLINICAL HISTORY + SITE OF BIOPSY A India H&E SLIDE/ block FOR REVIEW (MORE THAN 2 SLIDES)
798 Z201K BIOPSY; H&E SLIDE FOR REVIEW (UPTO 2 SLIDES / PARAFFIN BLOCKS) HISTOPATHOLOGY PARAFFIN BLOCK / SLIDE + CLINICAL HISTORY + SITE OF BIOPSY A India  H&E SLIDE/ block FOR REVIEW (UPTO 2 SLIDES )
799 1533 BIOPSY; MUSCLE BIOPSY WITH SPECIAL STAINS (MASSON TRICHOME) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN + SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS  (EMG STUDIES,     LAB. INVESTIGATIONS,  DISTRIBUTION OF MUSCLE WEAKNESS) A India STAINS CONNECTIVE TISSUE / MUSCLE
800 1532 BIOPSY; NERVE BIOPSY WITH SPECIAL STAINS (LUXOL FAST & GBS) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN + SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS  (EMG NERVE CONDUCTION STUDIES,  MOTOR  / SENSORY LOSS,          &                SEGMENT INVOLVED) A India Histopathological processing of nerve biopsy with final interpreatation including special stain (LUXOL FAST & GBS
801 1534 BIOPSY; RENAL BIOPSY WITH SPECIAL STAINS  (PAS, GMS & OTHER AS REQUIRED FOR EX: CONGORED IN AMYLOIDOSIS) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN + SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS. RENAL FUNCTION TESTS, INCLUDING 24 HRS URINE PROTEIN. A India This test is useful for evaluation of patients with undiagnosed kidney disease. It helps in following the course of therapy or disease progression. It also diagnoses disease caused by immune mechanisms. Biopsy of transplanted kidney is particularly important in determination of acute rejection, infection or recurrent disease.
802 9359 BIOTINIDASE (BIOT) > 1 MONTH Colorimetry/FEIA Dried blood spots Ambient India Preferred test for diagnosing biotinidase deficiency
803 9300 BIOTINIDASE, SERUM Spectrophotometric SERUM FROZEN India Biotinidase deficiency is an autosomal recessive disoder caused by mutations in the biotinidase gene. Age of onset and clinical phenotype vary depending on the amount of residual Biotinidase activity. The combined incidence of profound and partial Biotinidase deficiency is 1 in 61000. The carrier frequency in the general population is 1 in 120. This assay is used for diagnosing biotinidase deficiency. It is also useful for follow up testing for certain Organic acidurias.
804 RD1470 BK VIRUS  DNA QUANTITATIVE Real time PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/RANDOM URINE.SPECIMEN COLLECTION INSTRUCTIONS: EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/ RANDOM URINE.SAMPLE SHOULD REACH SRL, MUMBAI  WITHIN 24HRS OF COLLECTION. REFRIGERATED India This test is useful for the detection of BK virus which is linked to Transplant associated Nephropathy. The virus disseminates to the kidneys and urinary tract where it persists for the life of the individual. Approximately 80% of the population contains a latent form of this virus, which manifests in cases of immunosuppressio n.
805 5814F BLOOD LYMPHO CULTURE BY FISH  (Detects only  five chromossomes -Down’s syndrome,ambigious genetalia etc.) FISH WB-HEPARIN + FAMILY HISTORY+DETAILED PHYSICAL FEATURES.SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. A India Chromosome analysis helps in the diagnosis of a wide variety of congenital conditions. It helps in the identification of congenital chromosome abnormalities like Aneuploidy (Trisomy / Monosomy) & structural chromosome abnormalities.
806 1515SF BODY FLUID FOR CYTOLOGY CYTOLOGY FLUID ( Clinical history required )please mention date and time drawn A – FLUIDS India Screening of body fluids and other body discharges by Papanicoloau staining helps in the early detection of malignancies.
807 1014 BOH PANEL (LUPUS ANTICOAGULANT ASSAY, Antiphospholipid Evaluation, TORCH IgG & IgM 10 Parameter, ANA, TSH, Factor V Leiden (optional, if required will be charged additionally, EDTA WB required. CLOT BASED & ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY/IFA/CHEMILUMINECENCE DOUBEL CENTRIFUGED PLASMA CITRATE(F)+SERUM(R)+CLINICAL HISTORY+H/O ORAL ANTICOAGULANT Lupus : Frozen (F immediately at -20°c  & transported in dry ice) R/F India Autoimmune conditions manifest with fetal loss and thrombosis and are significantly related to bad obstetric history.Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is a major reproductive complication in women, which is characterized by recurrent fetal loss, thrombosis, and thrombocytopenia in association with Anticardiolipin antibodies (aCL). Presence of Anticardiolipin antibodies interferes in very early pregnancy at the stage of fetal implantation, by impeding normal reproductive event. It has been reported that 8-42% of recurrent pregnancy loss is due to the presence of these autoantibodies. Torch panel – To detect certain infectious diseases that can cause birth defects in a newborn; sometimes to screen pregnant women for these infections.
808 4638 BOH TOTAL (TORCH IgG & IgM 10 Parameter, TSH, Lupus Anticoagulant Screen, Cardiolipin IgG & IgM Abs, Beta 2 Glycoprotein IgG & IgM Abs) CLOT BASED & ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY/ CHEMILUMINECENCE FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C *(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + SERUM (R) + CLINICAL HISTORY+ H/O ORAL ANTI COAGULANT (PT. SHOULD BE OFF ANTICOAGULATION FOR 7 DAYS) F (To be F immediately at -20°c & transported in dry ice) /2-8°C (3 DAYS), >3DAYS -20°C TORCH DAILY 3 AM, 15.30 PM  TSH DAILY (MON – SAT) 1600 HRS and India Torch panel – To detect certain infectious diseases that can cause birth defects in a newborn; sometimes to screen pregnant women for these infections.                                             Autoimmune conditions manifest with fetal loss and thrombosis and are significantly related to bad obstetric history.Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is a major reproductive complication in women, which is characterized by recurrent fetal loss, thrombosis, and thrombocytopenia in association with Anticardiolipin antibodies (aCL). Presence of Anticardiolipin antibodies interferes in very early pregnancy at the stage of fetal implantation, by impeding normal reproductive event. It has been reported that 8-42% of recurrent pregnancy loss is due to the presence of these autoantibodies. Anti Beta 2 Glycoprotein 1 (Beta 2GP1) antibodies are independent risk factor for thrombosis in autoimmune diseases and complications of pregnancy.
809 9214RFX BONE MARROW ASPIRATION  REFLEX WITH MPO MICROSCOPY+ CYTOCHEMISTRY SPECIAL STAINS BONE MARROW SMEAR + PERIPHERIAL SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Diagnose a disease or condition involving the bone marrow or blood cells
Determine the stage or progression of a disease
Check iron levels and metabolism
Monitor treatment of a disease
Investigate a fever of unknown origin
Bone marrow biopsy and aspiration may be used for many conditions. These include:

Anemia
Blood cell conditions in which too few or too many of certain types of blood cells are produced, such as leukopenia, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, thrombocytosis, pancytopenia and polycythemia
Cancers of the blood or bone marrow, including leukemias, lymphomas and multiple myeloma
Cancers that have spread from another area, such as breast, into the bone marrow
Hemochromatosis with special stain MPO

810 1054 BONE MARROW ASPIRATION SMEARS MICROSCOPY BONE MARROW SMEAR + PERIPHERIAL SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India Examination of Bone Marrow is required for further workup of hematological abnormalities observed in peripheral blood, staging for bone marrow involvement by metastatic tumors, assessment of infectious disease processes including fever of unknown origin and in the evaluation of metabolic storage diseases.
811 1500BM BONE MARROW BIOPSY HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Bone Marrow Aspiration Report Mandatory). A India #N/A
812 9222RFX BONE MARROW REFLEX TO LAP MICROSCOPY + CYTOCHEMISTRY SPECIAL STAINS BONE MARROW SMEAR + PERIPHERIAL SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Diagnose a disease or condition involving the bone marrow or blood cells
Determine the stage or progression of a disease
Check iron levels and metabolism
Monitor treatment of a disease
Investigate a fever of unknown origin
Bone marrow biopsy and aspiration may be used for many conditions. These include: Anemia
Blood cell conditions in which too few or too many of certain types of blood cells are produced, such as leukopenia, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, thrombocytosis, pancytopenia and polycythemia
Cancers of the blood or bone marrow, including leukemias, lymphomas and multiple myeloma
Cancers that have spread from another area, such as breast, into the bone marrow
Hemochromatosis with LAP score
813 4052 BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS IGG (SERUM,EIA) EIA SERUM FROZEN/REFRIGERATED India To detect IgG antibodies to B. pertussis
814 RD1317 BRAF V600E Mutation Real Time PCR PARAFFIN BLOCK Tissue embedded in Paraffin block + CLINICAL HISTORY A India BRAF mutation is found in a variety of cancers.   Patients exhibiting these mutations benefit from BRAF inhibitors.
815 1519K BRAIN BIOPSY WITH CUSTOM IHC Histopathology + IHC TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & CT/MRI Report/Plates/Images Mandatory) . A India #N/A
816 RD1421 BRCA 1 & 2 GENETIC TEST – BREAST CANCER Next Generation Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India A test that detects some of the mutations in the BRCA gene which is linked to breast cancer. This assay is useful for screening family members of known Breast cancer patients.
817 1692 BREAST CA PANEL (ER, PGR, HER2/neu, KI-67) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN FOR 24-48 HRS/ PARAFFIN BLOCK+ Site of biopsy and Clinical details MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING.* TIME AND DURATION OF FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTIONED ON THE TRF.* A India ER & PR receptor assays are routinely performed on Breast carcinomas to assess responsiveness to endocrine therapy and prognosis. Her­2/neu expression shows responsiveness to Herceptin therapy.
818 1811 BREAST CANCER PROGNOSIS TUMOR PROFILE #5A (ER, PGR, HER 2-neu, , EGFR, DNA PLOIDY) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY / FLOW CYTOMETRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK (SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY)MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED TIME AND DURATION OR FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTION ON TRF A India BREAST CANCER PROGNOSIS TUMOR PROFILE: (ER, PGR, HER 2-neu, , EGFR, DNA PLOIDY)
819 1816 BREAST CANCER PROGNOSIS TUMOR PROFILE #6A (ER, PGR, DNA PLOIDY, EGFR, HER 2neu, KI -67, , P53) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY / FLOW CYTOMETRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK (SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY)MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED TIME AND DURATION OR FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTION ON TRF A India BREAST CANCER PROGNOSIS TUMOR PROFILE: (ER, PGR, DNA PLOIDY, EGFR, HER 2neu, KI -67, , P53)
820 1831K BREAST EVALUATION PANEL (ER, PGR, HER2/neu) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN FOR 24-48 HRS/ PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING.* TIME AND DURATION OF FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTIONED ON THE TRF.* A India ER & PR receptor assays are routinely performed on Breast carcinomas to assess responsiveness to endocrine therapy and prognosis. Her­2/neu expression shows responsiveness to Herceptin therapy.
821 1531 C 1  Esterase Functional ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM / EDTA PLASMA FROZEN India C1 esterase is decreased in Angioedema. The inherited form is usually diagnosed in the first two decades of life. The acquired form affects primarily adults with autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders. Approximately 15% of patients with Hereditary angioedema have a normal concentration of the protein but it is dysfunctional.
822 1218T C DIFFICILE TOXIN A/B: RAPID TEST RAPID ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY STOOL in sterile leak proof Container R if specimen with in 24 hrs of collection. If received >24 hrs from collection then  required F at -20 deg C India Clostridium difficile is a bacterial pathogen that causes Pseudo­membran ous colitis and antibiotic associated diarrhoea. It produces toxins A & B which are enterotoxins. A positive result is considered presumptive evidence of Clostridium diffcile infection.
823 RD1450 C.diptheria Toxin A and B PCR PCR THROAT SWAB IN STUARTS TRANSPORT MEDIUM, PURE CULTURE ISOLATES AMBIENT India This test is detects both the A and the B subunits of the diphtheria toxin gene.
824 RD1309 C0NNEXIN 26 MUTATION PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Cx26 testing can help to identify the cause of the hearing loss as well as can predict the prognosis of the hearing loss (most Cx26 hearing loss does not worsen). It can also help with treatment decisions (most Cx26 hearing loss responds well to hearing aids and/or cochlear implants). In addition, identifying Cx26 mutations as the cause of a person’s hearing loss will reduce the need to perform other clinical tests. Furthermore, a positive test result can assure the family that no other problems associated with a syndromic form of hearing loss will develop. Testing can also help predict the likelihood that future children in the family will be born with hearing loss.
825 1526 C3, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA +CLINICAL HISTORY A India to help monitor the activity of autoimmune diseases and immune complex-related diseases
826 1554 C4C IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India #N/A
827 1500CD C4d IMMUNOFLOURESCENCE IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY KIDNEY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India useful method to detect antibody-mediated rejection in situ.
828 3121F CA 125 / OVARIAN CANCER MONITOR CHEMILUMINESCENCE FLUID ( Clinical history required ) R India CA 125 is a useful tumor marker for evaluating therapy and monitoring disease status in patients under treatment for ovarian cancer.
829 Z057K CA 125 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India CA125 reacts with most epithelial ovarian neoplasms of serous, endometrioid, clear cell and undifferentiated types. CA125 is a useful tumor marker for ovarian carcinomas; however, CA125 has also been described in other neoplasms such as seminal vesicle and anaplastic lymphomas. No reactivity has been shown for mucinous ovarian tumors.
830 Z111K CA 19-9 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Gastrointestinal carcinomas are positive, as well as transitional cell carcinomas of the bladder, endometrial adenocarcinomas, thyroid papillary, gallbladder carcinomas and lung carcinomas, including adenocarcinomas, bronchoalveolar cell carcinomas, squamous and small cell carcinomas.
831 4117 CA 72.4 ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy
with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours
following the last biotin administration]
+ Clinical History
2-8°C (30 days); F (3 MONTHS) India CA 72.4 is most useful as a marker for Gastrointestinal cancer, but blood levels may be increased in other malignancies like Lung cancer and nonmalignant disorders involving Gastrointestinal tissues.
832 9143U24 CADMIUM, 24 HRS URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) AFTER SHAKING THE TAKE THE ALIQUOT IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER BOTTLE  BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) 2-8°C (5 DAYS);        F  (>5 – 30DAYS) India This assay is useful in detecting exposure to Cadmium, a toxic heavy metal leading to kidney damage. Breathing the fumes of Cadmium vapours leads to Chronic emphysema. The commonest source of cadmium exposure is from spray painting of organic based paints and also from tobacco smoke. The latter leads to reproductive toxicity in both males and females.
833 9143 CADMIUM, BLOOD GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION IMPROVE/BD, SRL EDTA WHOLE BLOOD 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F  (>7 – 30DAYS) India This assay is useful in detecting exposure to Cadmium, a toxic heavy metal leading to kidney damage. Breathing the fumes of Cadmium vapours leads to Chronic emphysema. The commonest source of cadmium exposure is from spray painting of organic based paints and also from tobacco smoke. The latter leads to reproductive toxicity in both males and females.
834 9143U CADMIUM, URINE SPOT GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS);       F (>5 – 30DAYS) India This assay is useful in detecting exposure to Cadmium, a toxic heavy metal leading to kidney damage. Breathing the fumes of Cadmium vapours leads to Chronic emphysema. The commonest source of cadmium exposure is from spray painting of organic based paints and also from tobacco smoke. The latter leads to reproductive toxicity in both males and females.
835 3126 CALCITONIN CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM  ( CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED ) FROZEN: UP TO 2 WEEKS India Calcitonin is a hormone secreted by parafollicular C cells of thyroid gland. This assay is useful for the diagnosis and follow up of Medullary carcinoma thyroid, as an adjunct to diagnosis of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type II and Familial Medullary thyroid carcinoma. It is occasionally used in the diagnosis and followup of Islet Cell tumors.
836 Z171K CALCITONIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India The IHC demonstration of calcitonin is important: (1) For identification of early or microscopic medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), (2) To identify an MTC in the absence of amyloid deposits, (3) To distinguish non-typical forms of MTC (e.g., predominantly spindle cell or small cell patterns) from anaplastic carcinoma or malignant lymphoma, (4) To differentiate MTC with microfollicular or papillary patterns from thyroid follicular and papillary neoplasms and (5) To identify C-cell hyperplasia in association with hypercalcemia of diverse etiologies.
837 Z223K CALPONIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India The expression of calponin is restricted to smooth muscle cells. Two isoforms of calponin exist with molecular weights of 34kDa and 29kDa. Expression of the 29kDa form is primarily restricted to muscle of the urogenital tract. Calponin also labels myoepithelial cells and can be useful in distinguishing in situ from infiltrating breast carcinoma.
838 9980 CALPROTECTIN FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY STOOL 2-8°C (2days);  -20°C (>2 days) India Calprotectin is a neutrophilic marker specific for inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract. It is elevated in cases of infections, post­infectious Inflammatory Bowel Syndrome (IBS) & NSAID Enteropathy. Fecal calprotectin is used to differentiate IBD from IBS, to monitor treatment in IBD & to determine patients to be referred for endoscopy and / or colonoscopy.
839 RD1476 CALR GENE MUTATIONS PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY in specified format A India Somatic mutations in the calreticulin gene (CALR) are detected in peripheral blood in  65­85% of Essential thrombocythemia (ET) and Primary myelofibrosis (PMF) patients that are JAK2 and MPL mutation negative.
840 Z058K CALRETENIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Calretinin is the most specific and reproducible positive marker of epithelial mesothelioma.
841 5704 CAMPYLOBACTER SPECIES CULTURE CULTURE  RECTAL BIOPSY, STOOL IN TRANSPORT MEDIA (TRANSPORT MEDIA MANDATORY),BODY FLUID/BLOOD INOCULATED IN BACTEC BOTTLE (AEROBIC PLUS ) R India To detect camplobacter species in the given specimen
842 4907 CANASSIST BREAST IHC + Machine learning IHC Performed blocks 0 India N/A
843 2330 CANDIDA ALBICANS ANTIBODIES INDIRECT HAEMAGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (24 HRS); -20°C (>24 HRS) India Identification and sensitivity testing is important  for various  Candida species like C.albicans, C.parapsilosis, C.glabrata, C.guilliermondii and C.krusei  as these  species show variable sensitivity profile to antifungal drugs
844 2331 CANDIDA ALBICANS DNA DETECTOR PCR-SEQUENCING SPUTUM / CSF / FLUIDS / TISSUES + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This assay is useful for the detection on Candida albicans which is the major cause of invasive candidiasis. It is most frequently isolated pathogen from the blood of postoperative and immunocompromi sed patients.
845 4116 CARBAMAZEPINE( TEGRETOL) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM ( TREATMENT HISTORY REQUIRED ) FOR THERAPEUTIC LEVELS SAMPLE  SHOULD BE COLLECTED JUST BEFORE ORAL DOSE. FOR TOXIC LEVELS COLLECTION SHOULD BE 4-8 HOURS POST DOSE 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India To detect therapeutic and toxic range of CARBAMAZEPINE
846 4521 CARBOHYDRATE DEFICIENT TRANSFERRIN (CDT) NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (> 7 DAYS-90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India CDT has also proven successful in monitoring drinking status in patients under alcohol treatment.
847 3258F CARCINOEMBRYONIC ANTIGEN (CEA) CHEMILUMINESCENCE BODY FLUID ( Clinical history required ) R India CEA values are important in diagnosis, status assessment and monitoring in cancers of breast, gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, lungs, ovaries and prostate.
848 Z043K CARCINOEMBRYONIC ANTIGEN (CEA) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India  Incresaed levels of CEA are found in patients with primary Colorectal carcinoma and other malignancies like Medullary thyroid carcinoma and Carcinoma of breast, GI tract, liver, lung, ovarian, pancreatic and prostate. Serial monitoring of CEA should begin prior to therapy to establish a baseline for evaluating possible recurrence. Levels generally return to normal within 1 to 4 months after removal of tumor. Smokers show a higher baseline level of CEA.
849 3258C CARCINOMBRYONIC ANTIGEN (CEA), CSF CHEMILUMINESCENCE CSF( Clinical history required ) R India It is used for detecting meningeal carcinomatosis, intradural or extradural infiltration, or brain parenchymal metastasis from adenocarcinoma or squamous-cell carcinoma
850 3370 CARDIOLIPIN IGA ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS) ,>3DAYS -20°C India These antibodies are important as a diagnostic marker for a disorder called the “anti phospholipid syndrome”(APS).
851 RD1486 CARDIONEXT  PANEL Next Generation Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India To assess heart health
852 3304 CATECHOLAMINES, PLASMA ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY THE BLOOD SAMPLE (EDTA)SHOULD BE STORED AT 2-8 DEGREE CELCIUS UNTIL CENTRIFUGED TO SEPARATE THE PLASMA WITHIN 2 HOURS AFTER BLOOD COLLECTION. KEEP AWAY FROM HEAT OR DIRECT SUN LIGHT.DO NOT CONSUME VITAMIN B ,COFFEE, BANANAS, ALPHA -METHYDOPA,MOA AND COMT INHIBITORSAS WELL AS MEDICATION RELATED TO HYPERTENSION  72 HRS PRIOR TO THE COLLECTION OF THE SPECIMEN.MENTION CLINICAL DETAILS(PATIENT CLINICAL HISTORY, CT SCAN,USG & MEDICATION) OF THE PATIENT ON THE REQ FORM.. F  FROZEN STRICTLY India Less than three fold elevations of catecholamine levels are observed in individuals with essential hypertension. Greater than three fold levels of catecholamines of persistent or of episodic nature are observed in pheochromocytoma. Drug related variance in catecholamine levels are seen in individuals on alpha methly dopa, methanamine mandelate and labetol. Discontinuation of these medications one week prior to catecholamine assay ensures accuracy of results. Interference in catecholamine assay due to synthetic catecholamine analyses e.g. isoproterenol and isoetharine needs correlation with clinical inputs.
853 3304U CATECHOLAMINES, URINE ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY 24HRS URINE (Preservative:15 – 20ML 6N HCL) . (The patient should not consume Vitamin B, COFFEE AND BANANAS, 48hrs prior to the collection of the specimen.It is advisable to discontinue all medications, alpha methyldopa, MAO & COMT Inhibitors as well as medications related to  Hypertension should be discontinued atleast 72 hrs prior to specimen collection.If medications takenshould be  STrictly on the advise of the referring physician, the same should be mentioned.Please freeze the specimen immediately after collection. CLINICAL DETAILS(Patient’s clinical history, CT SCAN , USG & MEDICATION MANDATORY) mention 24 hrs urine volume FROZEN STRICTLY India This assay is useful in the diagnosis of Pheochromocytom a and Paraganglioma. It is also used as an auxillary test to Vanil Mandelic Acid & Homovanilic Acid determination in the diagnosis and followup of patients with Neuroblastoma and related tumors.
854 9211RFX CBC REFLEX TO LAP AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER +MICROSCOPY + CYTOCHEMISTRY SPECIAL STAINS EDTA WB +FRESH PERIPHERAL SMEARS (AIR DRIED) + CLINICAL HISTORY A India To determine your general health status; to screen for, diagnose, or monitor any one of a variety of diseases and conditions that affect blood cells, such as anemia, infection, inflammation, bleeding disorder or cancer. LAP score test is used to differentiate Chronic Myeloid Leukemias from Leukemoid reaction and Polycythemia vera from secondary causes of erythrocytosis.
855 1602 CCD3 FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India  It is expressed by mature T-lymphocytes and by a subset of thymocytes.
856 1604 CCD79A FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India B Lymphoid cell marker
857 Z219K CD 10 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD10, also known as Common Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia Antigen (CALLA), is expressed in early lymphoid progenitors and normal germinal center cells. It is almost always present on the surface of precursor B-lymphoblastic and Burkitt lymphomas and much less frequently on precursor T-lymphoblastic leukemia-lymphoma. Many follicular lymphoma and some diffuse large B-cell lymphomas, along with multiple myeloma are positive. CD10 is also present on breast myoepithelial cells, bile canaliculi, fibroblasts and with especially high expression on the brush border of kidney and gut epithelial cells. CD10 is also a good marker of endometrial stomal sarcoma.
858 Z244K CD 138 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Positive staining in tumors includes myeloma, primary effusion lymphoma. CD138 negative staining comprises mature B-cells and lymphomas (even plasmacytoid lymphomas). Many carcinomas also express CD138.
859 Z224K CD 1a IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India CD1a is expressed on cortical thymocytes, Langerhans cells, and dendritic cells. It is absent on mature peripheral blood T-cells, but cytoplasmic expression is detected on activated T-lymphocytes. CD1a is found on a subset of T-lymphoblastic lymphoma-leukemia and cases of Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
860 Z248K CD 56 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD56 recognizes two proteins of the neural cell adhesion molecule, the basic molecule expressed on most neuroectodermally-derived cell lines, tissues and neoplasms (e.g. retinoblastoma, medulloblastomas, astrocytomas, and neuroblastomas). It is also expressed on some mesodermally-derived tumors (rhabdomyosarcoma) and on natural killer cells. CD56 can be used as a marker for NK cell neoplasms. Some benign and malignant plasma cells are also positive. CD56 is often positive in neuroendocrine carcinomas
861 Z268K CD 7 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India CD7 is expressed on the majority of immature and mature T-lymphocytes and T-cell leukemia. It is also found on natural killer cells, and a small subpopulation of normal and malignant B-cells. CD7 antibody can be useful for detection of T-cell leukemias and myeloid leukemias. CD7 expression is often lost in mycosis fungoides.
862 Z249K CD 79A IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD79a first appears at the pre B-cell stage and persists until the plasma cell stage where it is found as an intracellular component. CD79a is found in the majority of acute leukemias of precursor B-cell type, B-cell lines, B-cell lymphomas, and in some myelomas. It is not present in myeloid cells or T-cells.
863 Z247K CD 8 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD8 is a T-cell marker for the detection of cytotoxic/suppressor T-cells. CD8 is also detected on NK cells, most thymocytes, a subpopulation of null cells, and bone marrow cells. This antibody is useful in evaluating T-cell lymphomas.
864 1676BC CD10 (CALLA) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA / BM-EDTA / WB- HEPARIN / BM-HEPARIN+DIRECT SMEAR+FLUID SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Prognostic ALL marker
865 1673 CD103 FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Hairy cell marker
866 Z117K CD117 / C-KIT IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Abnormal expression of cKit has been implicated in pathogenesis of myeloid leukemias. cKit expression has also been demonstrated in solid tumors including gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST), melanomas, breast carcinomas and small cell lung carcinoma. C-Kit is indicated as an aid in the differential diagnosis of GIST. Accurate assessment of CD117 protein expression using cKIT testing is a critical factor in the diagnosis of GIST and is becoming increasingly important in clinical management, including the use of imatinib mesylate (Gleevec®) therapy.
867 1675BN CD11c-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India In diseased, cells, CD11c is detected on acute myeloid leukemia (AML)-M4 and M5, hairy cell leukemia, lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (81%), small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL), splenic lymphoma, Langerhans cell histiocytosis, sinus histiocytosis, psoriatic skin lesions, and some follicular lymphomas.
868 1674BI CD13 PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA and HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India CD13 is a zinc-binding aminopeptidase expressed on the surface of myeloid precursors, mature granulocytic/monocytic cells and basophils.
869 1674BJ CD14 PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA and HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India CD14 stains normal macrophages/monocytes, granulocytes (weak), Langerhans cells, dendritic cells, and B cells. Positive staining in diseased cells comprises B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL), follicular center cell lymphoma, diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL), and acute myeloid leukemia (AML)-M4/M5.
870 Z030K CD15 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK  + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Myeloid cell marker
871 1674BK CD15 PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA and HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India It is present on granulocytes, including neutrophils and eosinophils, and to a lesser degree on monocytes. CD15 is also expressed in Reed-Sternberg cells and some epithelial cells. CD15 antibody is useful in the identification of Hodgkin lymphoma. CD15 is occasionally expressed in large cell lymphomas of both B- and T- phenotypes.
872 1674BL CD16+56-PERCENT + ABSOLUTE COUNTS FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA | WB- HEPARIN | WB / SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY(WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India Pan B cell marker
873 1675BS CD19/KAPPA-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA / BM-EDTA / WB- HEPARIN / BM-HEPARIN+DIRECT SMEAR+FLUID SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Pan B cell marker
874 1675BT CD19/LAMBDA-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Pan B cell marker
875 1675BU CD19/Tdt-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA / BM-EDTA / WB- HEPARIN / BM-HEPARIN+DIRECT SMEAR+FLUID SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India CLL  segregation marker
876 1675BA CD19-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Pan B cell marker
877 Z022K CD20 (PAN-B CELL) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK  + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Pan B cell marker
878 1675BB CD20-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Pan B cell marker
879 Z034K CD21 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CLL  segregation marker
880 1677BD CD22-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Pan B cell marker
881 Z261K CD23 (IHC) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ Site of biopsy and Clinical details MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Hairy cell / NHL marker
882 1677BC CD23-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA / BM-EDTA / WB- HEPARIN / BM-HEPARIN+DIRECT SMEAR+FLUID SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India CLL  segregation marker
883 1674BM CD25-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Hairy cell / NHL marker
884 1675BC CD2-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Pan T cell marker
885 Z023K CD3 (PAN-T CELL) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Pan T cell marker
886 1674BY CD3/CD16+56-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Natural Killer cells
887 1674BX CD3/CD19-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA / BM-EDTA / WB- HEPARIN / BM-HEPARIN+DIRECT SMEAR+FLUID SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India The CD3 antigen is first detectable in early thymocytes and its appearance probably represents one of the earliest signs of commitment to the T-cell lineage.CD3 is the most specific T-cell antibody. CD3 is expressed in normal thymocytes, peripheral T-cells, NK cells, and Purkinje cells of cerebellum. In diseased cells, CD3 stains most T-cell lymphomas. Only rare B cell lymphomas may be positive for CD3. CD19 recognizes a 95kD cell surface glycoprotein which is expressed by cells of the B-cell lineage and follicular dendritic cells. CD19 is a co-receptor of CD21and is an important signal transduction molecule which is involved in the regulation of B-lymphocyte development, activation and differentiation. CD19 may provide useful diagnostic information for the study of B-lymphoproliferative disorders.
888 1674BU CD3/CD4-ABSOLUTE FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA / HEPARIN + SMEAR (WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India The test is performed to confirm the T cell lymphoma and also during the treatment and after the treatment of the T cell lymphoma.
889 1674BZ CD3/HLA-DR PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA and HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India The CD3 antigen is first detectable in early thymocytes and its appearance probably represents one of the earliest signs of commitment to the T-cell lineage. CD3 is the most specific T-cell antibody. CD3 is expressed in normal thymocytes, peripheral T-cells, NK cells, and Purkinje cells of cerebellum. In diseased cells, CD3 stains most T-cell lymphomas. Only rare B cell lymphomas may be positive for CD3. To determine the expression of HLA-DR
890 Z029K CD30 (KI-1 ANTIGEN) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK  + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India It is expressed in activated B-, T- and NK cells. Positive staining is seen in infectious mononucleosis, lymphocytes infected with HIV, HTLV-1, EBV, HHV8 or hepatitis B, Reed-Sternberg cells, anaplastic large cell lymphomas (90%), lymphomatoid papulosis, peripheral T-cell lymphomas, and embryonal cell tumors.
891 Z212K CD31 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India This marker is highly restricted to endothelial neoplasms among all tumors of the soft tissue and its sensitivity is excellent. 100% of angiosarcomas and hemangiomas are CD31 positive. However, Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) is labeled more consistently by CD34 than by CD31. CD31 has also been used as a prognostic marker measuring tumor angiogenesis. CD31 also stains histiocytes.
892 1674BO CD33 PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA and HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India CD33 is a useful marker to identify cells of myeloid and monocytic lineage, leukemias and myeloproliferative neoplasms derived from these cells.N/A
893 Z211K CD34 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK  + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD34, a single chain transmembrane glycoprotein, is selectively expressed on human lymphoid and myeloid hematopoietic progenitor cells and endothelial cells. CD34 antibody labels many gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST), dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, solitary fibrous tumor and a subset of sarcomas. CD34 staining has been also used to measure angiogenesis.
894 1674BQ CD38-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Plasma cell / prognostic CLL marker
895 1659 CD4 (LYMPHOCYTE SUBSET PERCENTAGE AND ABSOLUTE COUNT) FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA WB ONLY
(SAMPLE TO REACH LAB WITHIN
48 HOURS.)
A India Helper T cell marker
896 Z025K CD4 (T-Helper cell) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK  + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD4, a single chain transmembrane glycoprotein, is found on a T-cell subset (helper/inducer). It is also present on a variety of monocyte-derived cells, including Langerhans and other dendritic cells. The CD4 epitope is absent from immature thymocytes and is expressed during T-cell development. Precursor T-lymphoblastic lymphomas are therefore variable in their expression of CD4, but most mature T-cell lymphomas are positive, with the exception of aggressive NK-cell leukemia, extranodal NK-cell lymphoma, gamma delta T-cell lymphomas, and enteropathy-type T-cell lymphoma.
897 1657B CD4/CD8 (Lymphocyte Enumeration STudy-T Cells (%CD3,%CD4,%CD8,ABS CD3,ABS CD4,ABS CD8)) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA + HEPARIN (WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India This assay is helpful in enumerating the percent and absolute cell counts of T and B lymphocyte subsets in whole blood.
898 1676BA CD41 PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA +HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India Used to platelet-specific glycoproteins – platelet glycoprotein Iib
899 Z024K CD43 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK  + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD43 (leukosialin, sialophorin, or leukocyte sialoglycoprotein) is a cell surface glycoprotein that is expressed on all thymocytes, T-cells, and cells of myeloid lineage. CD43 antibody can be useful in the diagnosis of T-cell lymphoma and a subset of B-cell lymphoma. CD43 expression in lymphomas is highly correlated with CD5; thus, most T-cell malignancies and a group of small lymphocyte B-cell malignancies (CLL/SLL, mantle cell lymphoma, and prolymphocytic leukemia (PLL)) are often positive, whereas follicular lymphoma is rarely positive. CD43 is also positive in about 50% of cases of Burkitt lymphoma.
900 Z021K CD45   [Also called as LEUCOCYTE COMMON ANTIGEN (LCA)] IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD45 is expressed on hematopoietic cells (human leukocytes, including lymphocytes, monocytes, and eosinophils), but is absent on normal and malignant non-hematopoietic tissues.
901 1676BB CD45-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India CD45 is expressed on hematopoietic cells (human leukocytes, including lymphocytes, monocytes, and eosinophils), but is absent on normal and malignant non-hematopoietic tissues.
902 Z213K CD5 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK  + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD5, a transmembrane protein, is found on most thymocytes and immature peripheral T-cells. It stains normal B-cells of mantle zone of spleen and lymph nodes, B-cells in peritoneal and pleural cavities, and almost all T-cells. In a fetus, most B-cells in spleen and cord blood are CD5 positive. It stains B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia/ small lymphocytic leukemia (CLL/SLL), mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), hairy cell leukemia (HCL), most T-malignancies, and most thymic carcinomas. CD5 is usually negative in spindle cell thymoma.
903 1675BP CD5/CD19-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India It stains B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia/ small lymphocytic leukemia (CLL/SLL), mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), hairy cell leukemia (HCL), most T-malignancies. CD19 is a co-receptor of CD21and is an important signal transduction molecule which is involved in the regulation of B-lymphocyte development, activation and differentiation. CD19 may provide useful diagnostic information for the study of B-lymphoproliferative disorders.
904 1675BD CD5-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India  It stains B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia/ small lymphocytic leukemia (CLL/SLL), mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), hairy cell leukemia (HCL), most T-malignancies, and most thymic carcinomas. CD5 is usually negative in spindle cell thymoma.
905 1677BE CD61 PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA and HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India This antibody is useful in detecting neoplastic platelet precursors, normal platelets, and most cases of megakaryocytic leukemias.
906 Z026K CD68 IHC, TISSUE/PARAFFIN BLOCK IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK  + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CD68 is an antibody directed against lysosomes. It is important for identifying macrophages in tissue sections. It stains macrophages in a wide variety of human tissues, including Kupffer cells and macrophages in the red pulp of the spleen, lamina propria of the gut, lung alveoli, and bone marrow. This antibody reacts with myeloid precursors and peripheral blood granulocytes. It shows strong granular cytoplasmic staining of chronic and acute myeloid leukemia and also reacts with true histiocytic neoplasia. It also stains granular cell tumors and some cases of melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, and pleomorphic sarcoma. Tumors of lymphoid origin are usually not stained.
907 1674BF CD7- PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA and HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India CD7 is expressed on the majority of immature and mature T-lymphocytes and T-cell leukemia. It is also found on natural killer cells, and a small subpopulation of normal and malignant B-cells. CD7 antibody can be useful for detection of T-cell leukemias and myeloid leukemias. CD7 expression is often lost in mycosis fungoides.
908 1351G CDC CROSSMATCH SEROLOGY SODIUM HEPARIN WB OF DONOR &  SERUM OF PATIENT.(SAMPLE IS TO BE COLLECTED AT LEAST AFTER 3 DAYS OF LAST DIALYSIS.  CROSS MATCH SAMPLE IS TO BE COLLECTED AFTER THREE WEEKS OF LAST BLOOD TRANSFUSION.  MANDATORY  DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF, PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) APPLICABLE FOR SOLID ORGAN TRANSPLANT ONLY (LIVER & KIDNEY) COLD PACK India HLA match shows the basic compatibility between two individuals for transplant.
Cross match detects the precise reaction between the serum of patient and the cells of donor in presence of complements.
909 Z260K CDX2 (IHC) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ Site of biopsy and Clinical details MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CDX­2 is an intestine­specific transcription factor that regulates both proliferation and differentiation in intestinal epithelial cells. It plays an important role in triggering cells towards the phenotype of differentiated villus enterocytes as well as in the maintenance of the phenotype. It exclusively marks nuclei of colonic epithelial cells and colorectal cancers on formalin­fixed, paraffin­embedded tissue sections.
910 7478 CEBPA MUTATION DETECTION PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY A India  Mutation of CEBPA has been linked to good outcome in both adult and pediatric Acute myeloid leukemia patients
911 7798 CELIAC FLEXI 2 PANEL IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN (SMALL TISSUE)  + SITE OF BIOPSY &CLINICAL DETAILS A India To help diagnose celiac disease
912 7799 CELIAC FLEXI 3 PANEL IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN (SMALL TISSUE)  + SITE OF BIOPSY &CLINICAL DETAILS A India To help diagnose celiac disease
913 1073 CELIAC PROFILE (Ttg IgA ABS, Gliadin IgG & IgA ABS) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay , FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (2 days) ,>2 days -20°C India To help diagnose celiac disease
914 7767 CELIAC TISSUE BIOPSY IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN (SMALL TISSUE)  + SITE OF BIOPSY &CLINICAL DETAILS A India To help diagnose celiac disease
915 7793 CELIAC TISSUE BIOPSY PLUS IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN (SMALL TISSUE)  + SITE OF BIOPSY &CLINICAL DETAILS A India To help diagnose celiac disease
916 1783 CELL BLOCK PREPARATION FOR FLUID (ONLY BLOCK PREPARED) CYTOLOGY BODY FLUIDS OR ASPIRATES +  SITE OF COLLECTION+ CLINICAL HISTORY &/OR RADIOLOGICAL FINDGS.  R                  FLUIDS /ASPIRATES,
IF FLUID SENT WITHIN 24 HRS.   FOR MORE THAN 24 HRS, MIX EQUAL PROPORTION OF FLUID WITH 50% ALCOHOL
India CELL BLOCK PREPARATION FOR FLUID
917 1784 CELL BLOCK PREPARATION FOR FLUID WITH IHC MARKERS  STUDY CYTOLOGY BODY FLUIDS OR ASPIRATES +  SITE OF COLLECTION+ CLINICAL HISTORY &/OR RADIOLOGICAL FINDGS.  R                  FLUIDS /ASPIRATES,
IF FLUID SENT WITHIN 24 HRS.   FOR MORE THAN 24 HRS, MIX EQUAL PROPORTION OF FLUID WITH 50% ALCOHOL
India CELL BLOCK PREPARATION FOR FLUID WITH IHC MARKERS  STUDY
918 1782 CELL BLOCK PREPARATION FOR FLUID WITH REPORTING CYTOLOGY BODY FLUIDS OR ASPIRATES +  SITE OF COLLECTION+ CLINICAL HISTORY &/OR RADIOLOGICAL FINDGS.  R                  FLUIDS /ASPIRATES,
IF FLUID SENT WITHIN 24 HRS.   FOR MORE THAN 24 HRS, MIX EQUAL PROPORTION OF FLUID WITH 50% ALCOHOL
India CELL BLOCK PREPARATION FOR FLUID WITH REPORTING
919 1516D CERULOPLASMIN NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (> 7 DAYS-90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India  Ceruloplasmin is an acute phase protein and a transport protein for copper. It is decreased in Wilson’s disease, an autosomal recessive disorder. Low levels may also occur in Menkes syndrome which is a genetic defect in copper absorption.
920 1599 CH 50 COMPLEMENT TOTAL SERUM ELISA SERUM R India This assay is useful for the detection of individuals with an ongoing immune process. It should be used as a screening test for congenital complement deficiencies. Low levels are seen during infections, disease exacerbation in known cases of SLE and in patients with immune complex diseases like Glomerulonephritis . Undetectable levels indicate possibility of a complement component deficiency.
921 8761 CHICKEN POX (VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS (VZV) IgG ANTIBODIES) Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS),         >5 DAYS- 20 °C India Varicella  Zoster virus  (VZV)  is  a herpes virus causing Chickenpox  as  a primary infection &  Herpes  zoster due  to reactivation  of latent  infection.  A positive  IgG result  indicates exposure  to VZV and immunity.
922 8766 CHICKEN POX (VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS (VZV) IgM ANTIBODIES) Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS),         >5 DAYS- 20 °C India Varicella  Zoster virus  (VZV)  is  a herpes virus causing Chickenpox  as  a primary infection &  Herpes  zoster due  to reactivation  of latent  infection. This assay  is useful  for diagnosing  acute phase  infection with  VZV. Negative results in  suspected early  VZV infection should be  followed  by serial  testing  2­3 weeks  apart.
923 2492 CHIKUNGUNYA IgM – RAPID IMMUNOCONCENTRATION SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS); -20°C  (>3 DAYS) India CHIKUNGUNYA IgM ANTIBODIES RAPID Chikungunya fever is an acute viral infection characterized by a rapid transition from health to illness that includes severe arthralgia and fever. The incubation period ranges from 1 to 12 days. Fever rises abruptly to as high as 40°C and is often accompanied by shaking chills. Arthralgia is poly-articular, favoring the small joints and sites of previous injuries, and is most intense on arising. These symptoms may last for from 1 week to several months and are accompanied by myalgia. Headache, photophobia, retro-orbital pain, sore throat with objective signs of pharyngitis, nausea and vomiting also occur in this setting. The disease is self-limiting. There is no specific treatment or vaccine for Chikungunya; patients are only given symptomatic or supportive treatment. Test Utility: Clinical diagnosis of Chikungunya is confirmed by detection of anti-CHIK-IgM antibody. Antibodies usually become detectable, 5 days after onset of disease. Other methods include detection of CHIK nucleic acids in serum by RT-PCR test; or isolation of Chikungunya virus. Acute or viraemic phase serum samples collected within 2 to 4 days of onset have yielded positive virus isolates and detection of viral nucleic acids. The current test is a qualitative immuno concentration based rapid assay for the detection of IgM antibodies to Chikungunya. It is recommended that all positive specimens be retested with a confirmatory test. Limitations: Comment: A negative result may occur if the quantity of Anti- Chikungunya IgM present in the specimen is below the detection limit of the assay, or the antibodies that are detected are not present during the stage of disease when the specimen is collected. Certain specimens containing unusually high titer of heterophile antibodies or rheumatoid factor may affect expected results. Hence all results should be interpreted in conjunction with clinical findings and patient history. It is recommended that all positive specimens be retested with a confirmatory test.
924 2491 CHIKUNGUNYA IgM ANTIBODY, SERUM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY (DETAILS OF FEVER, SYMPTOMS ETC.) 2-8º C (5 DAYS),         >5 DAYS- 20 °C India  Chikungunya virus is transmitted by the bite of Aedes aegypti mosquito leading to Dengue like symptoms. However no hemorrhagic manifestations are seen. Absence of IgM antibody does not exclude the possibility of Chikungunya infection.
925 7630 CHIKUNGUNYA RNA PCR Real Time PCR SERUM / PLASMA EDTA Frozen India  Chikungunya virus is transmitted by the bite of Aedes aegypti mosquito leading to Dengue like symptoms. However no hemorrhagic manifestations are seen. PCR assay detects the presence of Chikungunya virus much earlier than the appearance of IgM antibodies.
926 RD1453 CHIMERISM (Post -transplant) STR Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD AND SWAB – RECIPIENT (ALONG WITH PREVIOUS ACCESSION NUMBER PRE-TRANSPLANT REPORT).  IF PRE- TRANSPLANT TEST  NOT PERFORMED AT SRL, DONOR WHOLE BLOOD REQUIRED Ambient India Patients with hematopoietic cell infusions for the purpose of engraftment like   bone marrow transplant recipients should have  their blood or bone marrow monitored for an estimate of the percentage of donor and recipient cells. The presence of both types of cells (Chimerism) or donor cells alone is an indicator of transplant success.
927 RD1452 CHIMERISM (Pre transplant, Donor and recipient) STR Analysis EDTA Whole Blood Donor + EDTA Whole Blood Recipient Ambient India o Post-transplant monitoring of donor/recipient origin of white blood cells in peripheral blood and/or marrow.
o Assessing risk of prognosis due to graft rejection and recurrence of disease.
o Evaluating donor/recipient cells in patients with inadequate marrow function.
o Determining if malignancy is a recurrence from recipient cells or a new occurrence from donor cells.
o Differentiating donor cell populations in recipients who have received multiple transplants.
928 7437 CHLAMYDIA DNA DETECTOR POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION URINE / GENITAL SWAB/URETHRAL SWAB/EYE SWAB A/R/F India Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common sexually transmitted bacterial infection. Upto 70% of women and 30% of men may be asymptomatic. Infection can lead to tubal pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility
929 9405 CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 days),        >5 days- 20 °C India Quantitative detection of CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE ANTIBODIES
930 9410 CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE IgA ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 days),        >5 days- 20 °C India Quantitative detection of IgA ANTIBODIES to CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE
931 9408 CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 days),        >5 days- 20 °C India Quantitative detection of IgG ANTIBODIES to CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE
932 9409 CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE IgM ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 days),        >5 days- 20 °C India Quantitative detection of IgM ANTIBODIES to CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE
933 7438 CHLAMYDIA SPECIATION PCR Sequencing URINE / GENITAL/ URETHRAL SWAB/EYE SWAB /FLUID A/R India Chlamydia species are known to infect the urogenital, ocular, respiratory, CNS, reproductive, cardiovascular (endocarditis) and musculoskeletal systems.  Currently 4 species of Chlamydia are recognized; C. pneumoniae, C. trachomatis, C. psittaci and C.pecorum. Speciation is of paramount clinical importance, as it helps to distinguish asymptomatic and symptomatic infection and can prove useful for evaluation of reactive arthritis possible due to Chlamydia infection.
934 5061 CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS – IGA EIA Serum Frozen India Quantitative detection of IgA ANTIBODIES to CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS
935 9404 CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS),        >5 DAYS- 20 °C India Quantitative detection of CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATISANTIBODIES
936 9406 CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS),        >5 DAYS- 20 °C India Quantitative detection of IgG ANTIBODIES to CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS
937 9411 CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS IgM ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS),        >5 DAYS- 20 °C India Quantitative detection of IgM ANTIBODIES to CHLAMYDIA  TRACHOMATIS
938 9147U24 CHROMIUM, 24 HRS URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE).  24 HRS VOLUME SHOULD BE COMPULSARILY SPECIFIED .  FIRST SHAKE THE CAN AND TAKE THE 10-20 ML  ALIQUOT. THE MEASUREMENT OF URINE VOLUME SHOULD BE DONE AFTER ALIQUOTING.IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CULTURE BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India This assay is used for screening occupational exposure to Chromium and for monitoring metallic prosthetic implant ware. Chromium concentrations are increased in patients with metallic joint prosthesis. Chromium is principally excreted in the urine, hence urine levels correlate   better with exposure.
939 9147 CHROMIUM, BLOOD GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION BD SRL SODIUM HEPARIN VACCUTAINER, WHOLE BLOOD 2-8°C (7DAYS); FROZEN (>7 -30 DAYS) India This assay is used for screening occupational exposure to Chromium and for monitoring metallic prosthetic implant ware. Chromium concentrations are increased in patients with metallic joint prosthesis.
940 9147S CHROMIUM, SERUM GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION BD RED TOP VACCUTAINER, CENTRIFUGE, SEPARATE SERUM 2-8°C (7DAYS); FROZEN (>7 -30 DAYS) India This assay is used for screening occupational exposure to Chromium and for monitoring metallic prosthetic implant ware. Chromium concentrations are increased in patients with metallic joint prosthesis.
941 9147U CHROMIUM, URINE SPOT GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India This assay is used for screening occupational exposure to Chromium and for monitoring metallic prosthetic implant ware. Chromium concentrations are increased in patients with metallic joint prosthesis. Chromium is principally excreted in the urine, hence urine levels correlate better with exposure.
942 RD1516 CHROMO750K Microarray AMNIOTIC FLUID / CVS IN STERILE SALINE/EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY ONLY AMNIOTIC FLUID/ CVS AT 2-8 °C; REST A India N/A
943 Z081K CHROMOGRANIN A IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Chromogranin is present in several elements of the diffuse neuroendocrine system (DNES), including anterior pituitary, thyroid perifollicular C cells, parathyroid chief cells, pancreatic islet cells, intestinal enterochromaffin cells and tumors derived from these cells. Chromogranin immunoreactivity was also seen in thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, fetal liver, neurons, the inner segment of rods and cones, the submandibullar gland and the central nervous system. This marker is useful in evaluating neuroendocrine tumors
944 3951 CHROMOGRANIN A RADIO IMMUNOASSAY SERUM  ( CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED ) 2-8°C (24 HRS); F (>24 HRS) India Chromogranin A is the first line  test for diagnosing Carcinoid tumors. It is used as a followup test for treated cases of Carcinoid tumors. It is useful as an adjunct in the diagnosis of other Neuroendocrine tumors including Pheochromocytom a, Pituitary adenomas and functioning & non­functioning Islet cell and Gastrointestinal APUD tumors.
945 RD1515 CHROMOOPTIMA Microarray AMNIOTIC FLUID / CVS IN STERILE SALINE/EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY ONLY AMNIOTIC FLUID/ CVS AT 2-8 °C; REST A India N/A
946 RD1518 CHROMOPOC Microarray IST TRIMESTER – CHORIONIC VILLI; 2ND OR 3RD TRIMESTER – PLACENTAL VILLI (PLEASE SEND CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT
IF NONE OF THESE ARE AVAILABLE, THEN A SMALL PIECE OF FOETAL SKIN (THIGH, STOMACH, ARMS)
Don’t send full fetus to the dept. It will not be acceptable.
ONLY AMNIOTIC FLUID/ CVS AT 2-8 °C; REST A India N/A
947 1609 Chronic  lympho-proliferative disorder panel (WITH INCLUSION OF CD200) FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY(MANDATORY) A India The Leukemia evaluation employs cell surface markers to aid in the diagnosis and characterisation of neoplasms of hematopoietic origin. Results are useful in the differential diagnosis, therapeutic monitoring and detection of relapses of these neoplasms.
948 1024 CHRONIC FATIGUE SYNDROME PANEL (CBC, ESR,  Random Glucose, Creatinine, Calcium, Magnesium, Electrolytes, ALT, HBsAg, HIV, HCV, ANA, TSH, Folic Acid, Urinalysis, Food Allergy (Wheat, Milk, Peanut) AUTOMATED  CELL COUNTER, AUTOMATED (PHOTOMETRICAL CAPILLARY STOPPED FLOW KINETIC ANALYSIS) / MANUAL (MODIFIED WESTERGREN) ,Chemiluminescent Microparticle Immunoassay (CMIA), Chemiluminescence, ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen, SPECTROPHOTOMETRY, IMT, DIPSTICK & MICROSCOPY EDTA WHOLE BLOOD +CITRATE WHOLE BLOOD BLACK TOP  + RANDOM FLORIDE PLASMA+RANDOM URINE+FASTING URINE+SERUM FROZEN + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) + DIRECT SMEARS. (Folic Acid: Folates are light sensitive. Minimize exposure to light during sample handling and
storage).
FLUORIDE PLASMA : (2-8°C  3 DAYS); SERUM : 2-8°C (2 DAYS), F (> 2DAYS); URINE : 2-8°C(24 HRS) India Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a disorder characterized by persistent and unexplained fatigue resulting in severe impairment in Daily functioning. Besides fatigue most patients with CFS report concomitant symptoms such as pain, cognitive dysfunction, psychiatric illness and unrefreshing sleep. CFS is seen world wide with higher prevalence in females & adult prevalence rate varying between 0.2 ­0.4 % . Laboratory tests help to exclude disorders causing fatigue e.g. endocrine disorders, neoplasm, heart failure etc
949 8425 CITRATE, URINE 24 H ENZYMATIC Enzymatic 24HRS URINE SAMPLE (BEFORE STARTING THE COLLECTION, 10ML OF 6N HCL PRESERVATIVE SHOULD BE ADDED TO THE 24HRS URINE COLLECTION CONTAINER).  MENTION AGE, GENDER, 24HRS URINE VOLUME AND CLINICAL DETAILS ON THE REQUISITION FORM. FROZEN(STABILITY:4 DAYS) India Citrate binds to calcium and inhibits kidney stone formation. Thus low levels of citrate may lead to kidney stones and is the most important risk factor of kidney stone formation in children. The treatment includes increasing urinary citrate excretion.
950 RD1444 C-KIT GIST PCR – SEQUENCING TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED AMBIENT India c­Kit mutations are associated with shorter survival and higher relapse risk following standard AML therapy in AML Patients. It also confirms diagnosis of Systemic Mastocytosis where patients without the D816V pathogenic variation are sensitive to the tyrosine kinase inhibitor Imatinib mesylate (Imatinib).
951 RD1308 C-KIT MUTATION PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY A India c­Kit mutations are associated with shorter survival and higher relapse risk following standard AML therapy in AML Patients. It also confirms diagnosis of Systemic Mastocytosis where patients without the D816V pathogenic variation are sensitive to the tyrosine kinase inhibitor Imatinib mesylate (Imatinib).
952 7748 Cladosporium herbarum – Specific  IgG ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);  -20°C (>1 week) India Detection of IgG to Cladosporium herbarum
953 8882 CLASS I ANTIBODY DETECTION (PRA %) LUMINEX BASED RECIPIENT SERUM IN PLAIN VIAL Cold India The test detects the specifically HLA class I antibodies in sensitized patients.
954 8883 CLASS II ANTIBODY DETECTION (PRA %) LUMINEX BASED RECIPIENT SERUM IN PLAIN VIAL Cold India  The test detects the specifically HLA class II antibodies in sensitized patients.
955 6024F CLL PANEL by FISH (13q14.3, 17p13.1, 11q22.3 deletions and Trisomy 12) FISH BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India To aid in the diagnosis, lineage assignment, subclassification, and response to treatment of hematologic malignancies.
956 RD1430 Clostridium Difficile Real Time PCR Real Time PCR STOOL FROZEN/COLD India C. difficile testing may be ordered when a person hospitalized for more than three days has frequent watery stools, abdominal pain, fever, and/or nausea during or following a course of antibiotics or following a recent gastrointestinal surgery. Testing may be ordered for outpatients when someone develops these symptoms within 6­8 weeks after taking antibiotics, several days after chemotherapy, or when a person has a chronic gastrointestinal disorder
957 2412A CLOSTRIDIUM TOXIN A / B ENZYME IMMUNO ASSAY STOOL A/R India Clostridium difficile is a bacterial pathogen that causes Pseudo­membran ous colitis and antibiotic associated diarrhoea. It produces toxins A & B which are enterotoxins. A positive result is considered presumptive evidence of Clostridium diffcile infection.
958 1603 cmPO FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Myeloid cell marker
959 1614 cmPO / CCD79A / CCD3 FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA /BM-EDTA   / WB- HEPARIN /BM-HEPARIN  / FLUIDS IN EDTA /HEPARIN/SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Multiparametric flow cytometry analysis of intracellular expression of MPO, or cCD79A or CD3 molecule in hematopoetic neoplasiais used for the identification and characterisation of myelogenous lineage differentiation (i.e cMPO+CD79a-CD3-) or B-cells lineage differentiation (i.e. cMPO-cCD79a+CD3-) or T-cells lineage differentiation (cMPO-CD79a-cCD3+) of hematopoietic acute malignancies.
960 7576 CMV Viral Load Real Time PCR EDTA PLASMA /EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/TISSUE EDTA PLASMA – A/R/F, EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/TISSUE -A/R India Quantitative CMV PCR testing gives the clinician a “viral load” value useful for monitoring antiviral therapy and possibly identifying patients at risk for CMV disease.
961 9149U COBALT URINE SPOT URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL  (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Cobalt is widely distributed in the environment and used in the manufacture of hard alloys which are component of joint prosthesis devices. Cobalt salts are also used in the glass and pigment industry. This assay is used to detect Cobalt toxicity and to monitor metallic prosthetic implantware.
962 9149U24 COBALT, 24 HRS URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Copper is an essential element that is a cofactor of many enzymes. Copper metabolism is disturbed in   Wilson’s disease, Menkes disease, Primary Biliary Cirrhosis and Indian childhoodcirrhosis. Urinary copper concentrations are also used to monitor patients on chelation therapy.
963 9149 COBALT, BLOOD GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION BD, SRL EDTA VACCUTAINER, WHOLE BLOOD 2-8°C (7DAYS); India Cobalt is widely distributed in the environment and used in the manufacture of hard alloys which are component of joint prosthesis devices. Cobalt salts are also used in the glass and pigment industry. This assay is used to detect Cobalt toxicity and to monitor metallic prosthetic implantware.
964 9149S COBALT, SERUM ICPMS BD RED TOP VACCUTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL MUMBAI, CENTRIFUGE, SEPARATE SERUM IN MULTIPURPOSE VIAL AVAILABLE FROM SRL MUMBAI, PERCOLATE,  DO NOT USE PIPETE 2-8°C (28DAYS); F (28 DAYS) India Cobalt is an integral component of vitamin B12. It is found in most foods and is readily absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.  Cobalt concentrations may be increased in individuals with deteriorating orthopedic implants. Cobalt chloride is used in the treatment of some refactory anemias, including sickel cell anemia but its use has decreased. Cobalt is used in treating cancer of oral cavity, pharynx and lyranx, rhabdomyosarcoma, carcinoma of penis, and radio senstive but wide-spread tumors.
Cobalt is not highly toxic, but large enough doses will produce adverse clinical manifestations. Acute symptoms are pulmonary edema, allergy, nausea, vomiting, hemorrhage, and renal failure. Chronic symptoms include pulmonary syndrome, skin disorders, and thyroid abnormalities.
965 4550 COLORECTAL CANCER PANEL (KRAS, NRAS & BRAF) PCR Sequencing/PyroSequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED/UNSTAINED SLIDES – 5 NOS/CELL BLOCKS A India To detect following mutation KRAS, NRAS & BRA
966 RD1507 COLORECTAL CANCER PROFILER NEXT Next Generation Sequencing/PCR Fragment Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD AND PARAFFIN BLOCK + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India Targeted mutation test is designed to cover hotspot mutations of 22 unique genes. The assay utilizes sequencing of DNA targets allowing detection of > 1,800 cancer related mutations as supported by Cosmic Database, with a very low input DNA material. The assay is useful for : identifying tumors that may respond to targeted therapies by assessing multiple gene targets simultaneously, identifying specific mutations within genes known to be associated with response or resistance to specific cancer therapies and for identifying mutations that may help determine prognosis for patients with solid tumors.
967 RD1465 COMMON MUTATION PANEL mtDNA (MELAS 1, MERRF,NARP,LHON, KSS MT DNA MUTATION) PCR Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India This common mutation panel tests more common mitochondrial disorders including: MELAS (Mitochondrial Encephalomyopathy with Lactic Acidosis, and Stroke-like episodes), MERRF (Myoclonic Epilepsy with Ragged Red Fibers), NARP (Neuropathy, Ataxia, and Retinitis Pigmentosa), LHON (Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy) and Kearns-Sayre syndrome (KSS).
968 1555 COMPLEMENT C1q IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY / HP TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India immunofluorescence is a technique used in the laboratory to diagnose diseases of the skin, kidney, and other organ systems.
969 1501D COMPLEMENT PROTEIN CONCENTRATION (C3) NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (>8 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India C3 is an acute phase reactant. Decreased levels are seen in patients with SLE, Endocarditis and DIC. Congenital deficiency of C3 increases the risk of recurrent bacteremia. This assay is useful for the diagnosis of C3 deficiency and for investigation of a patient with an undetectable Total complement (CH50) level.
970 1504D COMPLEMENT PROTEIN CONCENTRATION (C4) NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (>8 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India C4 is critical to activation of classical pathway. Decreased levels are seen in patients with SLE, Immune Complex disease and Hereditary angioedema. Congenital deficiency of C4 increases the risk of recurrent bacteremia especially  S.pneumoniae. This assay is useful  in the diagnosis of C4 deficiency and for investigation of a patient with an undetectable Total complement (CH50) level.
971 1209C COMPREHENSIVE CORONARY RISK PROFILE (Extended Coronary Risk Profile, Homocysteine) SPECTROPHOTOMETRY/ CHEMILUMINESCENCE/ NEPHELOMETRY 12-14 HOURS FASTING SERUM + SERUM/ PLASMA- EDTA + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) F; 2-8°C (2 DAYS); F (> 2 DAYS) India This panel also includes non­lipid markers of cardiovascular disease. The nonlipid factors contributing to cardiovascular disease are genetic mutations, inflammation, coagulation disorders, infection and autoimmune disease.
972 MGEN002 Comprehensive Dystonia Panel 0 0 0 India #N/A
973 5040M COMPREHENSIVE MYELOMA PROTEIN PANEL ELECTROPHORESIS/ IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS/NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM (CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY ) AVOID LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SPECIMEN 2-8°C (7 DAYS) India This asay is useful for screening of Monoclonal gammopathies in the general population. These gammopathies may be seen in a wide spectrum of diseases like Multiple myeloma (MM), Macroglobulinemia , Plasma Cytoma, B cell lymphomas, disorders of monoclonal protein structure and certain premalignant conditions like MGUS. It can also help in assessing risk of progression of MGUS to MM.
974 3328IJ COMPREHENSIVE NEONATAL SCREENING PANEL  MS/MS A. General Information
Collection Time:  Collect sample 24 hours AFTER birth up to 1 month of age.  (DAY 2-7 REPORTED WITHOUT DISCLAIMER , DAY 8 TO 1 MONTH WITH DISCLAIMER COMMENT)
REQUIRE FOLLOWING MADATORY DETAILS:
Birth date and time, Sample collection date and time, Age at the time of collection (more than 24 hours), Transfusion details if any with date and time, IV fluid infusion if any with date and time, Feed details (Breast/Bottle/Both Breast and Bottle feed), Status at the time of collection (Normal/Premature/Sick), Gestational age, Birth weight details, Medication if any.Single baby or Twin baby (please specify),Ethnicity (White/Hispanic/Asian/Am.Indian/Af.Amer/Others),Doctors Name and Contact details + Clinical history of the patient.
B. Sample Acceptability: Special Instructions:
1. Venous blood from a central line is acceptable (Do NOT apply blood to filter paper through a needle as hemolysed samples are not acceptable).
2.  All the requested details on the  Newborn Screen Card should be mentioned properly.

C. Rejection Criteria
1. Samples collected less than 72-96 hours after blood transfusion (if the patient has been transfused with whole blood, wait 72-96 hours before collection of sample).
2. Samples collected while the patient is on Intravenous Fluid (if the patient is on intravenous fluids wait 2 weeks before collection of sample.  If the patient has stopped intravenous fluid wait 2 days before collection of sample).
3. Scratched and abraded, contaminated, layered, super-saturated spots, unsaturated spots, samples containing EDTA, samples with plasma rings around them, hemolysed samples.
4.  A baby on IV fluids and on a ventilator is not a good specimen for NBS. Sample should be collected  after oral feeding is established.
5.Samples should not be collected immediately after birth.They should be collected after oral feeding (Breast Feed/ Bottle Feed) is established.
6. Freezing and thawing will cause the red blood cells to burst (hemolysis) and that will affect the results.  So the answer is no, not acceptable for MS/MS screening.

Storage and Shipping Temperature: Allow blood to dry 3 – 4 hrs before packing. Store/Ship the sample in a ZipLock© or equivalent bag at 2° – 8° C. India Various conditions that may be present at birth (congenital) can affect the health and wellness of a newborn. Most of these conditions are rare, though some are more prevalent in certain families or ethnic groups. Disorders range from difficulties processing certain nutrients (metabolic), to problems with hormones (endocrine), to the production of abnormal forms of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells. Some of these conditions cannot be cured, but many can be managed so that the child can grow and live a relatively normal life.

Newborn screening tests help to identify potentially treatable or manageable congenital disorders within days of birth. Life-threatening health problems, mental retardation, and serious lifelong disabilities can be avoided or minimized if a condition is quickly identified and treated.

Newborns can be routinely screened for many of these disorders before leaving the hospital using a few drops of blood.

975 3328II COMPREHENSIVE NEONATAL
SCREENING PANEL (Neonatal
Screening Panel-1+NBS by
MS/MS)
ENZYME
IMMUNOASSAY &
MS/MS
DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth), FOR MS/MS refer test code 3358 2-8°C (14
DAYS)
India Various conditions that may be present at birth (congenital) can affect the health and wellness of a newborn. Most of these conditions are rare, though some are more prevalent in certain families or ethnic groups. Disorders range from difficulties processing certain nutrients (metabolic), to problems with hormones (endocrine), to the production of abnormal forms of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells. Some of these conditions cannot be cured, but many can be managed so that the child can grow and live a relatively normal life.

Newborn screening tests help to identify potentially treatable or manageable congenital disorders within days of birth. Life-threatening health problems, mental retardation, and serious lifelong disabilities can be avoided or minimized if a condition is quickly identified and treated.

Newborns can be routinely screened for many of these disorders before leaving the hospital using a few drops of blood.

976 8012 COMPREHENSIVE VIRAL FLU PANEL (INFLUENZA A, INFLUENZA B, PARA INFLUENZA, RSV & NOVEL H1N1 VIRUS) REAL TIME PCR FOR NOVEL H1N1 AND INFLUENZA A; MULTIPLEX RT-PCR FOR INFLUENZA B, RSV AND PARAINFLUENZA NASAL/THROAT/NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB IN VTM F India To diagnose following virus: INFLUENZA A, INFLUENZA B, PARA INFLUENZA, RSV & NOVEL H1N1 VIRUS
977 EGEN006 Comprehensive  Neurology Panel 0 0 0 India #N/A
978 RD1438 COMT GENOTYPING PCR Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/EDTA PLASMA + CLINICAL HISTORY Whole Blood (A)/PLASMA (F) India Catechol­O­methyl transferase (COMT) is involved in phase II (conjugative) metabolism of catecholamines and catechol drugs, such as dopamine, as well as the catechol­estrogen s. Schizophrenia patients homozygous for the *2 polymorphism displayed improved cognition following drug treatment
979 RD1427 CONNEXIN 30 MUTATION DETECTION DNA SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India Useful to identify a second mutation in patients who carry a single CX26 mutation and to determine the genetic basis for hearing loss in an affected individual.
980 1121T COOMBS TITRE (Rh ANTIBODY TITRE) TUBE AGGLUTINATION  SERUM MANDATORY 2-8°C (48 HRS),>48 HRS -20 °C India Indirect Coombs Test is used to identify red blood cell IgG antibodies that can cross the placenta and cause Hemolytic disease of the newborn.
981 9202RFX COPPER REFLEX TO CERULOPLASMIN (CERULOPLASMIN  WILL BE PERFORMED IF LOW VALUE OF COPPER) GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION/NEPHELOMETRY BD RED TOP VACCUTAINER, CENTRIFUGE, SEPARATE SERUM,( AGE + SEX MANDATORY) +2 ALIQUOT REQUIRED, 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (> 7 DAYS-90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India To measure the amount of copper and ceruloplasmin in the blood; to help diagnose Wilson disease; sometimes to help identify conditions associated with copper deficiencies
982 9144U24 COPPER, 24 HRS URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE).  24 HRS VOLUME SHOULD BE COMPULSARILY SPECIFIED .  FIRST SHAKE THE CAN AND TAKE THE 10-20 ML  ALIQUOT IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) THE MEASUREMENT OF URINE VOLUME SHOULD BE DONE AFTER ALIQUOTING. 2-8°C (5 DAYS);        F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Copper is an essential element that is a cofactor of many enzymes. Copper metabolism is disturbed in   Wilson’s disease, Menkes disease, Primary Biliary Cirrhosis and Indian childhoodcirrhosis. Urinary copper concentrations are also used to monitor patients on chelation therapy.
983 9144 COPPER, SERUM GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION BD RED TOP VACCUTAINER, CENTRIFUGE, SEPARATE SERUM, AGE + SEX MANDATORY 2-8°C (7DAYS); F (>7 -30 DAYS) India Copper is an essential element that is a cofactor of many enzymes. Copper metabolism is disturbed in Wilson’s disease, Menkes disease, Primary Biliary Cirrhosis and Indian childhood cirrhosis. Copper concentrations increase in acute phase reactions. They decrease in nephrosis, malabsorption and malnutrition. Copper levels are also useful to monitor patients specially pretermnewborns on nutritional supplementation. Results of copper are often interpreted together with ceruloplasmin.
984 9144U COPPER, URINE SPOT GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS);        F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Copper is an essential element that is a cofactor of many enzymes. Copper metabolism is disturbed in Wilson’s disease, Menkes disease, Primary Biliary Cirrhosis and Indian childhoodcirrhosis.Urinary copper concentrations are also used to monitor patients on chelation therapy.
985 1209E CORONARY RISK PROFILE EXTENDED (E CROP) (CORONARY RISK PROFILE +APOLIPOPROTEIN EVALUATION) NEPHELOMETRY / SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM 12-14 HRS FASTING + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (2DAYS); F ( >2 DAYS) India This panel tests Lp (a) with other lipid markers of cardiovascular disease. Elevated Lp(a) levels are commonly observed in patients and families with premature coronary heart disease / stroke / cerebrovascular and peripheral vascular disease.
986 7535 COUPLE KARYOTYPING – (PBLC) CELL CULTURE WB-HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + FAMILY HISTORY + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT + DETAILED PHYSICAL FEATURES + DOCTOR CONTACT NO. (MANDATORY) A India To detect chromosome abnormalities, in order to help diagnose genetic diseases, some birth defects and certain haematologic and lymphoid disorders
987 2547I COXSACKIE ANTIBODY – IGG, SERUM EIA SERUM R/F India Coxsackie virus antibodies usually coexist with Echovirus antibodies. Infections commonly seen are Meningitis, Myocarditis and Epidemic pleurodynia.
988 2548I COXSACKIE ANTIBODY – IGM, SERUM EIA SERUM R/F India Coxsackie virus antibodies usually coexist with Echovirus antibodies. Infections commonly seen are Meningitis, Myocarditis and Epidemic pleurodynia.
989 1158CG CRYOGLOBULIN-QUALITATIVE INSPECTION, PHYSICAL (HEATING) SERUM-AMBIENT ONLY / COLD 2 – 8 DEGREE CELCIUS A India Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate spontaneously and reversibly at less than body temperature within 3 days. They are insoluble at 4°C and may aggregate upto 30°C. They have a tendency to fixcomplement and initiate inflammatory reaction. This assay is useful for evaluating patients with Vasculitis, Glomerulonephritis and Lymphoproliferativ e disease. It also helps to evaluate patients with Macroglobulinemia and Myeloma who are symptomatic on exposure to cold.
990 9189 CRYPTOCOCCUS ANTIGEN IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY SERUM 2-8°C -3 days,>3 days: -20°C India Cryptococcosis is an invasive fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans found commonly in pigeon droppings. The disease affects mainly lungs and CNS. Cryptoccal antigen test is less frequently positive in serum than in CSF.
991 9209RFX CRYPTOCOCCUS ANTIGEN DETECTION IF NEGATIVE REFLEX  CSF FUNGAL CULTURE BACTEC CULTURE /IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY CSF A /For CRYPTOCOCCUS ANTIGEN DETECTION : 2-8°C – 3 days,>3 days: -20°C India This is the preferred test for diagnosis of Cryptococcal infection. IF NEGATIVE CSF FUNGAL CULTURE IS DONE
992 9189C CRYPTOCOCCUS ANTIGEN, CSF IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY CSF 2-8°C -3 days,>3 days: -20°C India Cryptococcosis is an invasive fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans found commonly in pigeon droppings. The disease affects mainly lungs and CNS. This is the preferred test for diagnosis of Cryptococcal infection.
993 9188 CRYPTOCOCCUS NEOFORMANS DNA DETECTOR PCR-SEQUENCING SPUTUM / CSF / FLUIDS / TISSUES+ CLINICAL HISTORY A India Infection with C. neoformans is termed cryptococcosis. Most infections with C. neoformans occur in the lungs. However, fungal meningitis and encephalitis, especially as a secondary infection for AIDS patients, are often caused by C. neoformans. This test is useful for the detection of C.neoformans.
994 7661 CRYPTOSPORIDIUM ANTIGEN DETECTION FROM STOOL: RAPID CARD TEST RAPID IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER R India Cryptosporidium is an intracellular parasite that causes severe and chronic diarrhoea in patients who are immunocompromi sed.
995 4803 CS PANEL CLOT BASED PLASMA-CITRATEDPLATELET POOR PLASMA FROZEN  AT  -20° C+ CLINICAL history F India To help investigate the cause of a blood clot (thromboembolism), such as a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE); to determine whether you may have a protein C or protein S deficiency
996 5198 CSF,MEASELS (RUBEOLA), IGG ANTIBODIES EIA CSF + SERUM SPECIMEN COLLECTION: IT IS MANDATORY TO SEND SERUM ALONG WITH THE CSF SAMPLE. IF NOT RECEIVED WILL BE CREATED AS A PROBLEM SAMPLE. FROZEN India Measles  virus  is highly  contagious particularly infecting children, pregnant women, immunocompromi sed and nutritionally deficient individuals. IgG positivity  indicates previous exposure  to Rubeola virus or immunity.
997 1192 CULTURE, BETA STREP SCREEN CULTURE THROAT SWAB FOR GRP A STREPTOCOCCI,VAGINAL/RECTAL SWAB FOR GRP B STREPTOCOCCI- IN STERILE SCREW CAP VIAL A India to detect and identify beta-streptococci
998 1206 CULTURE, CLOT – SALMONELLA SPECIES CULTURE CLOTTED BLOOD IN PLAIN VACUTAINER A India to detect and identify SALMONELLA SPECIES
999 SP1144 CUSTOM LEUKEMIA PANEL (FOUR SURFACE MARKERS) FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India The Leukemia evaluation employs cell surface & cytoplasmic markers to aid in the diagnosis and characterisation of neoplasms of hematopoietic origin. Results are useful in the differential diagnosis, therapeutic monitoring and detection of relapses of these neoplasms.
1000 SP1909 CUSTOM LEUKEMIA PANEL (SIX SURFACE MARKERS) FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN/ BM / WB / FLUIDS SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India CUSTOM LUKEMIA PANEL FOR 6 CD MARKERS (CD 45, CD10, CD 14, CD19, C7 etc)
1001 Z118K CYCLIN D1 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India It is found in the majority of mantle cell lymphomas. Hairy cell leukemia and plasmacytoma may also express BCL1 with a weaker signal. BCL1 is an oncogene acting as a cell cycle regulator.
1002 4314I CYCLOSPORINE, EDTA/HEPARIN WHOLE BLOOD LCMSMS 1] Require EDTA/Heparin Whole Blood to be collected directly in relevant vaccutainers only
(Label time of collection and administration of drug),preferably with drug dose.
2] MENTION LEVEL CO or C2 AS IT IS MANDATORY FOR REPORTING ( trough or peak)
3] DOCTOR CONTACT DETAILS AND CLINICAL HISTORY  IS MANDATORY
2-8ºC India Cyclosporine is a commonly used immunosuppressiv e drug in patients receiving transplants. Therapeutic drug monitoring is used to optimize dose and avoid toxicity.
1003 3938 CYFRA 21-1 ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy
with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours
following the last biotin administration]
+ Clinical History
2-8°C (4 WEEKS); F (3MONTHS) India This is a useful marker in the management of Non Small Cell Carcinoma Lung. It is recommended for therapeutic monitoring and recurrences in an already diagnosed case. It may show positivity in certain cases of Squamous cell carcinoma, Large cell carcinoma and Adenocarcinoma.
1004 RD1311 CYP2C19 GENOTYPING PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Genetic polymorphism (mainly CYP2C19*2, CYP2C19*3 and CYP2C19*17) exists forCYP2C19 expression, with approximately 3–5% of Caucasian and 15–20% of Asian populations being poor metabolizers with no CYP2C19 function. This may reduce the efficacy of clopidogrel (Plavix). In patients with an abnormal CYP2C19 variant certain benzodiazepines should be avoided, such as diazepam (Valium), lorazepam (Ativan), oxazepam (Serax), and temazepam (Restoril).
1005 RD1439 CYP3A4*22 Genotyping PCR Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India The CYP3A4*22 allele is associated with reduced CYP3A4 activity, which may result in a better response to lipid­lowering drugs, such as simvastatin, atorvastatin, or lovastatin
1006 RD1446 CYSTIC FIBROSIS DELTA F508 GENE MUTATION PCR SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Cystic fibrosis (CF), also known as mucoviscidosis, is a genetic disorder that affects mostly the lungs but also the pancreas, liver, kidneys, and intestine. CF is caused by a mutation in the gene cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR). This test detects the most common mutation, ΔF508 which  is a deletion  of three nucleotides that results in a loss of the amino acid phenylalanine (F) at the 508th position on the protein. This mutation accountsfor two­thirds  of CF cases worldwide and 90% of cases in the United States.
1007 RD1460 Cystic Fibrosis Extended Mutation Panel Sanger Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Cystic fibrosis (CF), also known as mucoviscidosis, is a genetic disorder that affects mostly the lungs but also the pancreas, liver, kidneys, and intestine. CF is caused by a mutation in the gene cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR). This test detects the most common mutation, ΔF508 which  is a deletion  of three nucleotides that results in a loss of the amino acid phenylalanine (F) at the 508th position on the protein. This mutation accountsfor two­thirds  of CF cases worldwide and 90% of cases in the United States.
1008 9816C CYSTICERCUS IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay  CSF 2-8º C (24 Hrs), >24 hrs Frozen India Cysticercosis is an infection caused by the larval form of tapeworm Taenia solium. Tapeworm eggs contained in food or water migrate through the intestinal wall to various tissues including brain. Cerebrospinal Cysticercosis can result in seizures.
1009 9816S CYSTICERCUS IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (1 week), >1 week- 20 °C India Cysticercosis is an infection caused by the larval form of tapeworm Taenia solium. Tapeworm eggs contained in food or water migrate through the intestinal wall to various tissues including brain. Cerebrospinal Cysticercosis can result in seizures.
1010 Z208 CYTOCHEMISTRY PANEL FOR LEUKEMIAS  (PERIODIC ACID SCHIFF,SUDAN BLACK B and MYELOPEROXIDASE) CYTOCHEMISTRY SPECIAL STAINS FRESH,  AIR  DRIED, UNSTAINED REPRESENTATIVE BONE MARROW ASPIRATE / PERIPHERAL BLOOD SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India CYTOCHEMISTRY PANEL FOR LEUKEMIAS  (PERIODIC ACID SCHIFF,SUDAN BLACK B and MYELOPEROXIDASE)
1011 5814B CYTOGENETICS: BLOOD LYMPHO CULTURE CELL CULTURE WB-HEPARIN  SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + FAMILY HISTORY + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT + DETAILED PHYSICAL FEATURES A India This test is used to detect numerical and structural chromosomal abnormalities in postnatal cases with history of physical abnormalities, IQ/learning related disabilities, delayed/absence of menarche, in individuals with bad obstretic history etc.
1012 5823 CYTOGENETICS: BUCCAL SMEAR FOR BARR BODY ANALYSIS CELL CULTURE BUCCAL SMEAR SLIDES+ CLINICAL HISTORY A India The cells is used for the presence of Barr bodies (a mass seen in a normal female sex chromosome). When used for that purpose, the buccal smear test can confirm whether the patient is a male or female.
1013 6017F CYTOGENETICS: DEL 13q FISH BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India del(13q) is detected in 15­20% of Multiple myeloma patients by conventional karyotype and in 33­52% of cases by FISH analysis.
1014 5812 CYTOGENETICS: FANCONI ANEMIA KARYOTYPE   CELL CULTURE WB HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY, SPECIMAN OF AGE AND SEX MACTCHED CONTROL SAMPLE IS STRONGLY RECOMMENDED. A India Chromosomes from a patient with a   congenital form of bone marrow failure,   Fanconi’s anemia (FA), are sensitive to clastogenic agents (chemicals causing DNAbreakage) likeMitomycin C (MMC). The effect of MMC on lymphocytes in culture is used to differentiate reliably between FA patients with chromosome instability andIdiopathic aplastic anemia.
1015 5364B CYTOGENETICS: FRAGILE X CHROMOSOME ANALYSIS KARYOTYPE   CELL CULTURE WB HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India To help diagnose Fragile X syndrome (FXS)
1016 6006F CYTOGENETICS: HER2/neu FISH BIOPSIES SOULD BE FIXED FOR 24-48 HOURS IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN & EMBEDDED IN PARAFFIN. TISSUE SHOULD BE 4 MICRONS THICK & PLACED ON POSITIVELY CHARGED SLIDES. 3 SLIDES / SAMPLES CONTAINING MALIGNANT TISSUE. * TIME AND DURATION OF FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTIONED ON THE TRF.* CLINICAL DETAILS IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India This assay determines gene amplification status of the invasive component of Breast cancer which has therapeutic implications for the patient regarding Herceptin therapy.
1017 6015F CYTOGENETICS: Inv(16) FISH BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India inv(16) in a case of AML shows intermediate prognosis & helps in identifying known chromosomal anomaly in Myeloid malignancy & also monitoring response to therapy.
1018 5800 CYTOGENETICS: KARYOTYPING CHROMOSOME ANALYSIS IN HEMATOLOGICAL DISORDERS ( Blood cancer or Leukemia) KARYOTYPE   CELL CULTURE BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India This assay detects the presence of an abnormal clone to indicate malignant neoplastic process. It assists in the diagnosis and classification of certain malignant hematological disorders, evaluation of prognosis, monitoring effects of therapy and remission. Bone marrow specimens are preferred over peripheral blood.
1019 6018F CYTOGENETICS: MDS PANEL FISH BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) describes a group of clonal hematopoietic disorders resulting in ineffective production of one or more of the myeloid cell lineages which increases the  risk for transformation to AML.
1020 6019F CYTOGENETICS: MLL 11q rearrangement FISH BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India Prognostic marker for Acute Lymphoblastic leukemia or Acute Myelogenous leukemia.
1021 5815 CYTOGENETICS: NEONATAL KARYOTYPING (NEWBORN TO ONE MONTH OLD CHILD) KARYOTYPE   CELL CULTURE WB-HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 – 48 HRS / CORD BLOOD- HEPARIN (If baby is alive)+CLINICAL HISTORY in specified format A India High resolution chromosome analysis is the method of choice in neonates for detecting numerical and structural chromosome aberrations.  This assay  not only detects extra chromosomes, such as chromosome 21 in Down syndrome, but it also identifies structural chromosome changes, including subtle deletions and additions not identified by conventional Karyotyping techniques.
1022 6003F CYTOGENETICS: PML Ra Ra t(15:17) FISH BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India PML / RARA fusion is associated with a good response to all­transretinoic acid therapy in cases of Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia.
1023 5832F CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL AMNIOTIC FLUID FISH FISH AMINOTIC FLUID + DULY FILLED AMNIOTIC FLIUD TRF + CLINICAL HISTORY. CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN SHOULD REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India This assay determines the chromosomal status of the fetus including Numerical and structural abnormalities. Mosaicism can be ruled out in samples drawn after 15 weeks of gestation.
1024 5832K CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL AMNIOTIC FLUID KARYOTYPING KARYOTYPING AMINOTIC FLUID + DULY FILLED AMNIOTIC FLIUD TRF + CLINICAL HISTORY. CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN SHOULD REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India This assay determines the chromosomal status of the fetus including Numerical and structural abnormalities. Mosaicism can be ruled out in samples drawn after 15 weeks of gestation.
1025 5832 CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL AMNIOTIC FLUID KARYOTYPING + FISH KARYOTYPING + FISH AMINOTIC FLUID + DULY FILLED AMNIOTIC FLIUD TRF + CLINICAL HISTORY. CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN SHOULD REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India This assay determines the chromosomal status of the fetus including Numerical and structural abnormalities. Mosaicism can be ruled out in samples drawn after 15 weeks of gestation.
1026 5833F CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL CHORIONIC VILLUS BIOPSY FISH FISH CHORIONIC VILLUS IN MEDIUM+TRF CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India This assay is useful for the diagnosis  of genetic  disorders from families in which a known familial mutation/s has been identified previously.  It  is also  useful  for screening  of carriers  amongst individuals  at  risk for  known familial mutations.
1027 5833K CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL CHORIONIC VILLUS BIOPSY KARYOTYPING KARYOTYPING CHORIONIC VILLUS  IN MEDIUM, BIOPSY+CLINICAL HISTORY CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India This assay is useful for the diagnosis  of genetic  disorders from families in which a known familial mutation/s has been identified previously.  It  is also  useful  for screening  of carriers  amongst individuals  at  risk for  known familial mutations.
1028 5833 CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL CHORIONIC VILLUS BIOPSY KARYOTYPING + FISH (Need to ask the dept for medium) KARYOTYPING + FISH CHORIONIC VILLUS  IN MEDIUM, BIOPSY IN MEDIUM+CLINICAL HISTORY CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India To identify structural chromosome abnormality
1029 5831F CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL FETAL CORD BLOOD FISH FISH FETAL CORD BLOOD WITH SODIUM HEPARIN +CLINICAL HISTORY. CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India To identify structural chromosome abnormality.
1030 5831K CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL FETAL CORD BLOOD KARYOTYPING KARYOTYPING FETAL CORD BLOOD WITH SODIUM HEPARIN +CLINICAL HISTORY. CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India This assay determines the chromosomal status of the fetus including Numerical and structural abnormalities. Mosaicism can be ruled out in samples drawn between 18­20 weeks of gestation.
1031 5831 CYTOGENETICS: PRENATAL FETAL CORD BLOOD KARYOTYPING + FISH KARYOTYPING + FISH FETAL CORD BLOOD WITH SODIUM HEPARIN +CLINICAL HISTORY. CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER MANDATORY. SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION A India To identify structural chromosome abnormality.
1032 5818 CYTOGENETICS: PRODUCT OF CONCEPTION (POC) KARYOTYPING OR FISH IST TRIMESTER – CHORIONIC VILLI; 2ND OR 3RD TRIMESTER – PLACENTAL VILLI (PLEASE SEND CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT
CHORIONIC VILLI
OR HEART BLOOD
OR CORD BLOOD
IF NONE OF THESE ARE AVAILABLE, THEN A SMALL PIECE OF FOETAL SKIN (THIGH, STOMACH, ARMS)
FOR CHROMOSOMAL ANALYSIS/FISH
Don’t send full fetus to the dept. It will not be acceptable.
A/R India Chromosomal aneuploidy, the gain or loss of chromosomes, is a major cause of early fetal demise. Trisomy is the most common type of chromosomeabnormality in spontaneous abortions and has been observed for most chromosomes, with 13,18,21,  X, and Y being the most common.
1033 6021F CYTOGENETICS: TEL/AMLCYTOGENETICS: FISH BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India Occurs in only about 3% of adult Acute Lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) cases, it is the most common genetic rearrangement in B­lineage pediatric ALL (25%).
1034 5840 CYTOGENETICS:ACUTE PROMYELOCYTIC LEUKEMIA KARYOTYPE   CELL CULTURE BONE MARROW OR WB SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITH 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY  [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India  It enables in detection of the balanced reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 15 and 17, i.e. t(15;17)(q22;q12). This recurrent chromosomal abnormality along with its variants is associated with AML-M3 or Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL;APML). The diagnosis of this subtype of AML is clinically important to administer Anti-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) therapy.
1035 Z259K CYTOKERATIN – 19 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CK19 labels ductal and glandular epithelia, prostatic epithelia, and non-keratinizing squamous epithelia. This antibody is useful in the diagnosis of breast and cervical carcinoma. CK19 is not expressed in hepatocytes, therefore, antibody to CK19 is also useful in the distinction of liver metastasis from hepatocellular carcinomas.
1036 Z059K CYTOKERATIN – 20 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Cytokeratin 20 (CK20) positivity is seen in the majority of adenocarcinomas of the colon, mucinous ovarian carcinomas, transitional cell, and Merkel cell carcinomas, and frequently in adenocarcinomas of the stomach, bile system and pancreas. CK7/CK20 immunostaining patterns may be helpful in separating pulmonary from colonic adenocarcinomas.
1037 Z221K CYTOKERATIN – 5/6 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Cytokeratin 5/6 have been found valuable for the distinction between low differentiated squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. It labels mesothelioma, and epithelial basal cells in prostate and tonsil. No reactivity with other mesodermally derived tissues, such as muscle and connective tissues, has been observed. Anti-CK 5/6 has also been found useful in the differential diagnosis of atypical proliferations of the breast.
1038 Z060K CYTOKERATIN – 7 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Cytokeratin 7 (CK7) antibody reacts with proteins that are found in most ductal, glandular and transitional epithelium of the urinary tract and bile duct epithelial cells. CK7 distinguishes between lung and breast epithelium that stain positive, and colon and prostate epithelial cells that are negative. It also reacts with many benign and malignant epithelial lesions, e.g. adenocarcinomas of the ovary, breast and lung. Transitional cell carcinomas are positive and most prostate cancers are negative. This antibody does not recognize other intermediate filament proteins.
1039 Z054K CYTOKERATIN 18 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CYTOKERATIN 18  is typically expressed in simple, nonstratified epithelia. However, CK 18 is also expressed in basal and superficial cells of transitional epithelium, as well as in the luminal/secretory cells of complex epithelia.
1040 Z053K CYTOKERATIN 8 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Can be used to differentiate lobular carcinoma of the breast from ductal carcinoma of the breast.  it also reacts with a range of malignant cells, including those derived from secretory epithelia, but also some squamous carcinomata, such as spindle cell carcinoma. It is considered useful in identifying microscopic metastases of breast carcinoma in lymph nodes, and in distinguishing Paget’s disease from malignant melanoma. It also reacts with neuroendocrine tumors
1041 Z045K CYTOKERATIN-HMW, 34BE12 (SQUAMOUS) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India CK903 (34betaE12) is a high molecular weight cytokeratin present in all squamous epithelium and their carcinomas. This antibody recognizes cytokeratins 1, 5, 10 and 14 that are found in complex epithelia. There has been no reactivity with cells derived from simple epithelia, mesenchymal tumors, lymphomas, melanomas, neural tumors and neuroendocrine tumors. One useful application is the identification of the basal cell layer in prostate tissue in the determination of carcinoma.
1042 Z046K CYTOKERATIN-LMW, 35BH11 (NON SQUAMOUS) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Clone 35BH11 reacts exlcusively with cytokeratin 8 which is present in glandular-type epithelia and most carcinomas derived thereof. It is in general not reactive in non-epithelial tissues and cells.
1043 7578 CYTOMEGALOVIRUS COMBI TEST (CMV Viral Load/GCV resistance) REAL TIME PCR/SEQUENCING EDTA PLASMA /EDTA WHOLE BLOOD +  CLINICAL HISTORY F/A India To diagnose a current, past or reactivated cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection or if it is important to know if you ever had a CMV infection, such as prior to receiving an organ transplant. To detect GCV RESISTANCE BY SEQUENCING
1044 7575 CYTOMEGALOVIRUS DNA DETECTOR REAL TIME PCR WB-EDTA / CSF/TISSUE A India This assay is useful for rapid qualitative detection of CMV DNA specially in CMV seronegative patients who receive an organ transplant from a seropositive donor. It is also a useful assay in neonates suspected of acquiring virus in utero.
1045 9436 CYTOMEGALOVIRUS IgG & IgM ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (4DAYS), >4 DAYS- 20 °C India CMV is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality specially in organ transplant recipients and immunocompromi sed individuals. It is also responsible for congenital disease of the newborn. Positive CMV IgG results indicate past or current CMV infection. Such individuals are potentially at risk of transmitting CMV infection through different modes. Positive CMV IgM results indicate a recent infection which may be primary or reactivation / re­infection.
1046 9432 CYTOMEGALOVIRUS IGG AVIDITY Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (4DAYS), >4 DAYS- 20 °C India CMV is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality specially in organ transplant recipients and immunocompromi sed individuals. It is also responsible for congenital disease of the newborn. Positive IgG levels indicate past or current infection. Single IgG titre should not be used for diagnosis of recent infection. Paired acute and convalescent sera should be tested for seroconversion which is indicative of primary infection or reactivation of latent infection.
1047 4420 D3 HYDROXYBUTYRATE (KETONE BODY), SERUM Enzymatic SERUM F India This test can be used for both diagnosis and monitoring of diabetic ketoacidosis.
1048 4827 DCP-DECARBOXY PROTHROMBIN PIVKA-II CMIA Serum Frozen India DCP can be elevated in HCC. Conditions such as obstructive jaundice, intrahepatic cholestasis causing chronic decrease in vitamin K, and ingestion of drugs such as warfarin or wide-spectrum antibiotics can result in high concentrations of DCP.
1049 3146 DEHYDROEPIANDROSTERONE (DHEA) RADIO IMMUNOASSAY SERUM (CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED ) 2-8°C (24 HRS); F (2 months) India This assay is useful for the diagnosis and differential diagnosis of Hyperandrogenis m specially when used in conjunction with measurement of other sex steroids. It is an adjunct in the diagnosis of Congenital adrenal hyperplasia. It is also useful in the diagnosis of Premature adrenarche.
1050 DT3210 DENGMAL (Dengue Abs (Rapid), MP, CBC ) IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY /MICROSCOPY/ AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER WB-EDTA + SERUM + SMEAR A (  for dengue abs 2-8 d C upto 3 days and > 3 days: -20 d C  ) India To help diagnose dengue, malaria parasite
1051 7647 DENGUE DUO ANTIGEN & ANTIBODY TESTS (DENGUE NS1 ANTIGEN ELISA+ DENGUE ANTIBODIES ELISA) ENZYME IMMUNO ASSAY SERUM A/R/F India Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever and Dengue Shock Syndrome are caused by infection of RNA Flavivirus transmitted by a mosquito vector. This test differentiates between Primary and Secondary infection. Paired acute and convalescent specimens that exhibit a signifi specimen tht exhibit a significant change in titer are useful to confirm clinical diagnosis of infection. NS1 antigen is a nonstructural protein found in infected patients from 1st day of fever upto 5 days after the onset of fever.
1052 7599R DENGUE DUO RAPID TEST IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY SERUM/ WHOLE BLOOD (EDTA) 2-8°C -3 days,>3 days: -20°C India Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever and Dengue Shock Syndrome are caused by infection of RNA Flavivirus transmitted by a mosquito vector. This test differentiates between Primary and Secondary infection. Paired acute and convalescent specimens that exhibit a signifi specimen tht exhibit a significant change in titer are useful to confirm clinical diagnosis of infection. NS1 antigen is a nonstructural protein found in infected patients from 1st day of fever upto 5 days after the onset of fever.
1053 7648 DENGUE NS1 ANTIGEN TEST Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2DAYS- 20 °C India This test is used for the quantitative detection of Dengue Virus NS1 antigen as an aid to the diagnosis of Acute Dengue infection. NS1 antigen is a nonstructural protein found in infected patients from 1st day of fever upto 5 days after the onset of fever.
1054 7602 DENGUE RNA PCR REAL TIME PCR EDTA PLASMA/CSF F India Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever and Dengue Shock Syndrome are caused by infection of RNA Flavivirus transmitted by a mosquito vector. This test differentiates between Primary and Secondary infection. PCR assay detects the presence of Dengue virus much earlier than the appearance of IgM & IgG antibodies.
1055 7600 DENGUE VIRUS IgG & IgM ANTIBODIES, QUALITATIVE IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY SERUM 2-8°C -3 days,>3 days: -20°C India DENGUE VIRUS ANTIBODIES Dengue virus is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes. It belongs to the genus Flavivirus and has four serotypes, DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4. Infection with one dengue serotype provides lifelong immunity to that virus, but no cross protective immunity to the other serotypes. Human dengue infection causes a spectrum of illnesses ranging from inapparent or mild febrile illness to severe to fatal hemorrhagic disease. WHO classifies dengue infections as primary or secondary. It is believed that patients experiencing a secondary infection with heterologous serotypes have higher risk of complications, including Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever (DHF) and Dengue Shock Syndrome (DSS). Test Utility: Dengue specific IgM can be detected as early as 5 days after the onset of fever and generally persists for 30-90 days, although detectable levels may be present rarely upto 8 months post-infection. IgM antibody is also produced in secondary and tertiary dengue infections, although the response in some secondary and probably most tertiary infections is low level and transient. Dengue IgG levels usually start rising at the end of 1st week in primary infection and persists for months and sometimes for life. Patients with primary dengue infections usually are IgM positive & IgG negative with higher IgM concentrations, whereas patients with secondary infections are usually both IgG and IgM positive with higher IgG concentrations. Limitations: A negative result may occur if the quantity of antibody present in the specimen is below the detection limit of the assay, or the antibody is not present during the stage of disease when the specimen is collected. Positive results obtained with single serum samples are only provisional and do not necessarily indicate current dengue infection, but point to an infection in the previous 2 to 3 months. Patients suffering from other flavivirus infections (Tick-borne encephalitis virus, Japanese encephalitis virus etc) may give a false positive dengue test due to presence of cross reactive epitopes. Hence all results should be interpreted in conjunction with clinical findings and patient history. If clinically indicated, it is recommended to recheck positive specimens with a confirmatory test (M antibody Capture ELISA).
1056 7601 DENGUE VIRUS IgG ANTIBODIES, Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2DAYS- 20 °C India Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever and Dengue Shock Syndrome are caused by infection of RNA Flavivirus transmitted by a mosquito vector. This test differentiates between Primary and Secondaryinfection. Paired acute and convalescent specimens that exhibit a significant change in titer are useful to confirm clinical diagnosis of infection
1057 7646 DENGUE VIRUS IgM ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2DAYS- 20 °C India Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever and Dengue Shock Syndrome are caused by infection of RNA Flavivirus transmitted by a mosquito vector. This test differentiates between Primary and Secondaryinfection. Paired acute and convalescent specimens that exhibit a significant change in titer are useful to confirm clinical diagnosis of infection
1058 Z093K DESMIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Antibody to desmin reacts with striated (skeletal and cardiac) as well as smooth muscle cells. Anti-desmin antibody is useful in identification of tumors of myogenic origin. It reacts with leiomyosarcomas (smooth muscle) as well as rhabdomyosarcomas (striated muscle).
1059 3896 DIC PROFILE (PT, APTT, TT, Fibrinogen, FDP, D- DIMER, Platelet count) CLOT BASED / LATEX AGGLUTINATION / AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA –  AT MINUS 20° C, WB- EDTA  – (A), BLOOD SMEAR  – (A) * (DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) / A India Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is a clinicopathological condition in which there is activation of coagulation and fibrinolysis systems resulting in simultaneous formation of thrombin and plasmin with consumption of coagulation factors.
1060 Z218 DIFFERENTAIL DIAGNOSIS OF MEDIASTINAL MASS IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India To help classify mediastinal mass
1061 6022F DI-GEORGE SYNDROME  (22q deletion) FISH HEPARIN WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India Deletions in 22q11.2 have been associated with several disorders including DiGeorge syndrome (DGS) and Velocardiofacial syndrome (VCFS).
1062 1548H DIGOXIN (lanoxin) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM DRAWN 8HRS POST ADMISISTRATION (TREATMENT HISTORY REQUIRED) 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India Digoxin is widely prescribed for the treatment of Congestive heart failure and disturbances of cardiac rhythm. Equilibrium of serum and tissue Digoxin levels occurs at 6 to 8 hours, hence blood specimens should be drawn atleast 6 to 8 hours after drug administration. The drug has a narrow therapeutic window which makes monitoring therapy mandatory. Symptoms of toxicity mimic Cardiac arrhythmias for which the drug is originally prescribed.
1063 3151 DIHYDROTESTOSTERONE (DHT) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (24 HRS),       >24 HRS -20°C India This assay is useful for monitoring patients receiving 5 alpha reductase inhibitor therapy or chemotherapy. It also helps to evaluate patients with possible 5 Alpha reducatse deficiency. Low levels are seen in patients on 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor therapy and in cases of genetic 5 Alpha reductase deficiency.
1064 9964 DIPTHERIA  IGG ABS,SERUM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 days),  >2 days- 20 °C India The current test is a rapid test for the qualitative detection of IgG Antibodies to DIPTHERIA
1065 5400K DNA PLOIDY & CELL CYCLE ANALYSIS FLOW CYTOMETRY PARAFFIN BLOCK ( ONLY BREAST TUMOR ) + CLINICAL HISTORY A India #N/A
1066 Z272K DOG-1 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India DOG1 is a cell surface protein of unknown function selectively expressed in gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST). Among GIST cases with Kit mutations the DOG1 antibody identified 11% more cases than c-Kit antibody. DOG1 identifies the vast majority of both cKIT negative and Platelet-derived Growth Factor Receptor Alpha (PDGFRA) mutated GIST cases that may still benefit from imatinib mesylate (Gleevec®), an inhibitor of the Kit tyrosine kinase. In addition, DOG1 immunoreactivity is seen in fewer cases of mesanchymal, epithelial tumors and melanomas when compared with cKIT. The use of this highly sensitive and specific novel marker will increase the accuracy of GIST diagnosis.
1067 1406 Dopamine (Plasma,EIA) EIA EDTA PLASMA F India To measure the amount of dopamine in blood
1068 1406U24 DOPAMINE, ELISA, 24 HRS URINE  ELISA 24hrs Urine(Specimen collection instructions:10 ml urine aliquot from  collected 24 Hours Urine sample.
(Use 10 ml of 6 M HCL Or 10ml of 6M Glacial Acetic Acid as preservative. Mention 24hrs Urine volume on the requisition form)
FROZEN India To measure the amount of dopamine in urine
1069 1268FMF DOUBLE MARKER, SERUM (FMF CERTIFIED) ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM in 2 vials (Clinical Details in specified format, Maternal Date of Birth, Maternal Weight, Maternal Race,
Maternal H/O Type I Diabetes Mellitus + Obstetric USG Report between 10 to 13 weeks of gestation+Date of collection) MANDATORY
SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours following the last biotin administration]
2-8°C (8 DAYS);
F (> 8 DAYS)
India to determine any chromosomal malformation in the foetus.
1070 8384 DPD GENE MUTATIONS (Dihydropyrimidine Dehydrogenase Gene Mutation) PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD +  CLINICAL HISTORY A India The dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) enzyme is responsible for the detoxifying metabolism of fluoropyrimidines, a class of drugs that includes 5­fluorouracil, capecitabine, and tegafur. Genetic variations within the DPD gene can lead to reduced or absent DPD activity, and individuals who are heterozygous or homozygous for these variations may have partial or complete DPD deficiency; an estimated 0.2% of individuals have complete DPD deficiency. Those with partial or complete DPD deficiency have a significantly increased risk of severe or even fatal drug toxicities when treated with fluoropyrimidines; examples of
1071 4133 DRUGS OF ABUSE: 5 DRUGS (Opiates, PCP, Cocaine, Cannabinoids, Amphetamine) FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Intended use of this assay is to assist in Drug abuse treatment programs, Pain management clinics. Organ transplantation programs & Psychiatric programs.
1072 4132 DRUGS OF ABUSE: 6 DRUGS (Opiates, PCP, Cocaine, Cannabinoids, Amphetamine, Barbiturates) FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Intended use of this assay is to assist in Drug abuse treatment programs, Pain management clinics. Organ transplantation programs & Psychiatric programs
1073 4131 DRUGS OF ABUSE: 9 DRUGS (Amphetamine,
Barbiturates, Benzodiazepines, Cocaine,
Cannabinoids, Opiates, Phencyclidine, Methamphetamine, Methodone)
FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Intended use of this assay is to assist in Drug abuse treatment programs, Pain management clinics. Organ transplantation programs & Psychiatric programs.
1074 4134U DRUGS OF ABUSE: AMPHETAMINE FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Amphetamines are sympathomimetic amines that stimulate the CNS and supress appetite. They are a common cause of drug abuse. This assay confirms drug exposure of Amphetamines and its metabolites.
1075 4135U DRUGS OF ABUSE: BARBITURATES FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India This assay is useful in detecting drug abuse to Barbiturates which are commonly used  as “Downers” to induce sleep after Amphetamine or Cocaine induced “High”. As most Barbiturates are fast acting, their presence indicates use within the past 3 days except Phenobarbital which has a longer half life and its presence in urine indicates drug usage within the last 30 days.
1076 4136U DRUGS OF ABUSE: BENZODIAZEPINES FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Benzodiazepine group are drugs of abuse with a half life varying from 2 to 50 hours . The longest half life of 20 to 50 hours  is seen with the Diazepam group. The duration of effect varies from 4 to 12 hours.
1077 4137U DRUGS OF ABUSE: CANNABINOIDS FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India The principal psychoactive cannabinoid is delta – 9 tetrahydrocannabi nol (THC) which is released slowly from tissue storage sites. Infrequent smokers may test positive for 2 to 5 days after last Marijuana  / Hashish use; Chronic smokers may test positive even 3 to 4 weeks after abstinence. False positive result may be seen with Ketoconazole.
1078 4140 DRUGS OF ABUSE: COCAINE FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Cocaine is widely used by recreational drug abusers. This assay detects and confirms drug abuse involving cocaine. Presence of cocaine or its metabolite Benzoylecgonine in urine indicates use within the past 4 days. Since the half life of cocaine is 6 hrs, it will be present in urine 1 day after last use.
1079 4130 DRUGS OF ABUSE: METHAMPHETAMINE FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Methamphetamine is a prescription drug for weight loss as it has anorectic effect. It is also used in the treatment of Narcolepsy, Attention deficit disorder & Minimal brain dysfunction. As it has a stimulant effect, these drugs are commonly used illicitly and abused.
1080 4152 DRUGS OF ABUSE: METHAQUOLONE FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Methaqualone  is a  sedative hypnotic drug used illegally as a recreational drug. It is detectable in urine for 4­6 days after use.
1081 4138U DRUGS OF ABUSE: OPIATES FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Opiates  are natural  or synthetic  drugs that  have morphine  like action  used primarily  for  relief of  pain.  This assay detects  the presence  of opiates  in  urine and  gives  the sum  of unconjugated  and conjugated  forms of  the  parent drug.
1082 4139 DRUGS OF ABUSE: PHENCYCLIDINE (PCP) FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Phencyclidine (Angel  dust)  is  a drug  of abuse with  stimulant, depressant, hallucinogenic and  analgesic properties. It  can be  self administered  by smoking, nasal insufflation, intravenous injection or  oral ingestion.
1083 4148 DRUGS OF ABUSE: PROPOXYPHENE FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Propoxyphene  is a  prescription drug  for the  relief of  pain  and  is structurally related to  Methadone. Drug  overdose mainly  affects  the brain  causing euphoria  as  well as  analgesia, stupor, respiratory depression  and coma.  The half life  of Propoxyphene  is 8­24  hrs. This assay  helps  to monitor compliance and assess  toxicity.
1084 4101 DRUGS OF ABUSE: TETRAHYDROCANNABINOL FLOW CHROMATOGRAPHIC IMMUNOASSAY URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8° C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India The principal psychoactive cannabinoid is delta – 9 tetrahydrocannabi nol (THC) which is released slowly from tissue storage sites. Infrequent smokers may test positive for 2 to 5 days after last Marijuana  / Hashish use; Chronic smokers may test positive even 3 to 4 weeks after abstinence. False positive result may be seen with Ketoconazole.
1085 4810 DSA (DONOR SPECIFIC ANTIBODIES) LUMINEX BASED RECIPIENT SERUM & DONOR WB IN ACD VIAL Cold India The assay detects only Anti HLA antibodies against HLA class I & HLA class II antigens.
1086 1199 DsDNA (Reflex to end titre for all positive cases) INDIRECT IMMUNOFLUROSCENT ASSAY. SERUM F India    ds­DNA Antibody is detected in patients with active SLE and approximately 20% of patients with Mixed connective tissue disease.
1087 2481 DUCHENNE / BECKER MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY (This test is not intended for carrier detection. thus, specimens from males only would be accepted) MULTIPLEX POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD +  CLINICAL HISTORY A India Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy (DMD & BMD) are X­linked neuromuscular diseases of childhood resulting from a defect in the dystrophin gene. Deletion of one or more exons in the dystrophin gene may cause DMD/BMD. This assay detects deletions in all 79 exons of the dystrophin gene in both males & females.
1088 RD1473 DUCHENNE MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY (DMD) CARRIER TEST Multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification (MLPA)  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD +  CLINICAL HISTORY A India Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophy (DMD & BMD) are X­linked neuromuscular diseases of childhood resulting from a defect in the dystrophin gene. Deletion of one or more exons in the dystrophin gene may cause DMD/BMD. This assay detects deletions in all 79 exons of the dystrophin gene in both males & females.
1089 7667 E.COLI O157 ANTIGEN DETECTION RAPID IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER < 72 hrs of collection – R. >72 hrs from collection – F at -20 deg C India Entero hemorrhagic E Coli (EHEC) VT 1 & VT 2  infection presents with a wide spectrum of clinical manifestations, including asymptomatic carrier state, non bloody diarrhea , hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome.
1090 7665 E.HISTOLYTICA ANTIGEN DETECTION RAPID IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER < 72 hrs of collection – R. >72 hrs from collection – F at -20 deg C India The current test is a rapid test for the qualitative detection of Entamoeba histolytica in stool samples.
1091 Z258K EBV-LMP – 1 (ANTI-EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS, LMP) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India This antibody reacts strongly with Epstein Barr Virus (EBV)-positive lymphoblastoid cell lines and EBV infected B-cell immunoblasts in infectious mononucleosis. It also reacts with some EBV-associated neoplasms, particularly EBV-associated Hodgkin lymphoma.
1092 Z121K E-CADHERIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India It stains positively in glandular epithelium, as well as adenocarcinomas of the lung, G.I. tract and ovary. It is useful in distinguishing adenocarcinoma from mesothelioma. It is also positive in some thyroid carcinomas. Breast carcinomas with ductal and lobular features show two staining patterns: (1) complete or almost complete lack of membrane staining in lobular carcinomas and (2) uniform membrane expression throughout the tumor in ductal carcinomas. Immunohistochemical detection of ECadherin expression can be a useful diagnostic tool for the differentiation of ductal and lobular carcinomas of the breast.
1093 1409 ECHINOCOCCUS DETECTION MICROSCOPIC DETECTION – SCOLICES HYDATID CYST FLUID A/R India Echinococcus granulosus infects dogs and other canines as a definitive host. Man is an intermediate host. Cystic Hydatid  disease often affects liver, but other organs may also be involved.
1094 1279 ECHINOCOCCUS IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (7 days),        >7 days- 20 °C India Echinococcus granulosus infects humans as intermediate hosts leading to Cystic Hydatid disease that affects liver as well as other organs.
1095 6016F EGFR Gene AMPLIFICATION FISH MALIGNANT TISSUE BIOPSIES FIXED FOR 24-48HRS IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN AND EMBEDDED IN PARAFFIN. [PLEASE MENTION THE CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT, BLOOD PICTURE (CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF] A India EGFR­dependent signaling is involved in cancer cell proliferation, apoptosis, angiogenesis, invasion and metastasis. Targeting the EGFR is a valuable molecular approach in cancer therapy.
1096 RD1405 EGFR Mutation Detection (IF TISSUE RECEIVED; TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED SEPERATELY.) PyroSequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED/UNSTAINED SLIDES – 5 NOS/CELL BLOCKS A India Patients positive for EGFR mutations benefit from Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (Gefitinib). This assay detects insertions / deletions in codons 19 and 20. It also detects the most common mutations in codons 18, 19, 20 and 21.
1097 1503 ELECTRON MICROSCOPY – TISSUE ELECTRON MICROSCOPY  KIDNEY BIOPSY OR MUSCLE BIOPSY  IN 3% GLUTARALDEHYDE.IT IS MANDATORY TO SENT HISTOPATHOLOGY DIAGNOSIS REPORT ALONG WITH THE SAMPLE(IF NOT GIVEN, WILL BE CREATED AS A PROBLEM SAMPLE) ON COLD PACK India This test analyzes parenchymal tissues  at very high magnifications and is critical in diagnosing certain diseases where pathological features are not discernible under light microscopy. TEMs find application in diagnostic pathology, cancer research, virology, materials science as well as pollution, nanotechnology,and semiconductor research. The high magnification of the electron microscope enables observations not possible by light microscopy, and electron microscopy is considered to be an essential component of human diagnostic renal pathology, neuromuscular pathology, and is a useful tool in difficult cases in oncosurgical pathology .
1098 6028F EML-4 ALK Translocation by FISH FISH TISSUE/PARAFFIN BLOCK+CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT AMBIENT India The ALK-EML4 rearrangement has been identified in 3% to 5% of NSCLC with the majority in adenocarcinoma and younger male patients who were light or nonsmokers
1099 1181 ENDOMYSIAL ANTIBODY IgA, SERUM IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (ONE WEEK);        -20°C (LONGER) India Circulating IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) are present in 70 to 80% patients with Celiac disease and Dermatitis herpetiformis. This assay is useful in the evaluation of these diseases. It also monitors adherence to Gluten free diet. The titre generally corelates well with the severity of Gluten sensitive enteropathy.
1100 1181T ENDOMYSIAL ANTIBODY IgA, SERUM  WITH TITRE IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (ONE WEEK);        -20°C (LONGER) India Circulating IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) are present in 70 to 80% patients with Celiac disease and Dermatitis herpetiformis. This assay is useful in the evaluation of these diseases. It also monitors adherence to Gluten free diet. The titre generally corelates well with the severity of Gluten sensitive enteropathy.
1101 7929 ENDOMYSIAL ANTIBODY IGG (SERUM,IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE) IFA SERUM F India To help diagnose celiac disease
1102 8441 ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (7 days),        >7 days- 20 °C India Entamoeba histolytica is a parasitic protozoan that can infect the digestive tract and occasionally other tissues. Antibody IgG is useful in differentiating Amoebiasis from other causes of liver cysts and pancreatic infection. This is the most sensitive and specific test for Invasive amoebiasis. The test indicates current or previous infection. This test is less sensitive in non­invasive disease.
1103 3525 ENTEROQUICK (Bactec Blood Culture + Rapid Thyphi IgM ) IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY/BACTEC FLUORESCENT METHOD SERUM/ BLOOD INOCULATED BACTEC BOTTLE (AEROBIC PLUS ) A, FOR RAPID TYPHI IgM 2-8°C (24 hrs),> 24 hrs 20 °C India To help diagnose Enteric fever
1104 RD1464 Enterovirus real time PCR Multiplex PCR CSF + CLINICAL HISTORY FROZEN India Enteroviruses are positive­sense RNA viruses in the Picornaviridae family. The normal site of enterovirus replication is the gastrointestinal tract where the infection is typically subclinical. However, in a proportion of cases, the virus spreads to other organs, causing systemic manifestations, including mild respiratory disease (eg, the common cold); conjunctivitis; hand, foot, and mouth disease; aseptic meningitis; myocarditis; and acute flaccid paralysis. Collectively, enteroviruses are the most common cause of upper respiratory tract disease in children. In addition, the enteroviruses are the most common cause of central nervous system (CNS) disease; they account for almost all viruses recovered in culture from spinal fluid.
1105 Z005K EPIDERMAL GROWTH FACTOR  RECEPTOR (EGFR) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY. TISSUE PROCESSING CHARGES APPLICABLE INCASE SAMPLE RECEIVED IS TISSUE A India Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor (EGFR) overexpression can occur in a variety of tumor types, including breast, prostate, ovarian, brain, lung and predominantly squamous cell carcinomas. Tumors that express EGFR are associated with a poor prognosis and a shorter disease-free survival. Most colon carcinomas will show expression of EGFR in more than 1% of the invasive tumor cells. Patients whose tumor expresses EGFR are eligible for cetuximab therapy although the response to therapy is independent of the intensity or percentage of cells staining.
1106 MGEN001 Epileptic encephalopathy gene panel 0 0 0 India #N/A
1107 Z049K EPITHELIAL MEMBRANE ANTIGEN (EMA) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Epithelial Membrane Antigen (EMA) antibody stains normal and neoplastic cells from various tissues, including mammary epithelium, sweat glands and squamous epithelium. Hepatocellular carcinoma, adrenal carcinoma and embryonal carcinomas are consistently EMA negative, therefore, keratin positivity with negative EMA favors one of these tumors. EMA is frequently positive in meningioma, which can be useful when distinguishing it from other intracranial neoplasms, e.g. Schwannomas. The absence of EMA can also be of value since negative EMA is characteristic of tumors such as adrenal carcinoma, seminomas, paraganglioma and hepatoma.
1108 2066 EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS ANTIBODIES TETRA PANEL {(EBV (VCA) IgG, EBV(VCA) IgM),EBV(EA) IgG] (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS) &EBV (NA) IgG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay/Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2 DAYS- 20 °C India Primary infection by EBV causes Infectious mononucleosis, usually a self limiting disease in children and young adults. Infection with EBV can cause Lymphoproliferativ e disorders including tumors. VCA­IgG appears approximately 10 weeks after initial infection and persists for life.VCA IgM appears approximately 4–6 weeks after initial infection and declines after about 3 months.
1109 2126EG EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS EARLY ANTIGEN IgG ANTIBODIES, EBV (EA) (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2 DAYS- 20 °C India Primary infection by EBV causes Infectious mononucleosis, usually a selflimiting disease in children and young adults. Infection with EBV can cause lymphoproliferative disorders including tumors. Early Antigen D Antibody appears approximately 1 month after infection and typically is transient lasting only 1­2 months. Persistently elevated levels suggest reactivation or persistence of EBV infection.
1110 2266EG EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS NUCLEAR ANTIGEN IgG ANTIBODIES, EBV (NA) (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS) Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8º C (7 DAYS), >7 DAYS- 20 °C India Primary infection by EBV causes Infectious mononucleosis, usually a self limiting disease in children and young adults. Infection with EBV can cause Lymphoproliferativ e disorders including tumors. VCA­ IgG appears approximately 10 weeks after initial infection and persists for life.
1111 2266EM EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS NUCLEAR ANTIGEN IgM ANTIBODIES, EBV (NA) (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2 DAYS- 20 °C India Primary infection by EBV causes Infectious mononucleosis, usually a self limiting disease in children and young adults. Infection with EBV can cause Lymphoproliferativ e disorders including tumors. VCA IgM appears approximately 4 6 weeks after initial infection and declines after about 3 months.
1112 2116EG EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS VIRAL CAPSID ANTIGEN IgG ANTIBODIES, EBV (VCA) (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS) Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8º C (7 DAYS), >7 DAYS- 20 °C India Primary infection by EBV causes Infectious mononucleosis, usually a self limiting disease in children and young adults. Infection with EBV can cause Lymphoproliferativ e disorders including tumors. VCA­ IgG appears approximately 10 weeks after initial infection and persists for life.
1113 2116EM EPSTEIN BARR VIRUS VIRAL CAPSID ANTIGEN IgM ANTIBODIES, EBV (VCA) (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS) Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8º C (7 DAYS), >7 DAYS- 20 °C India Primary infection by EBV causes Infectious mononucleosis, usually a self limiting disease in children and young adults. Infection with EBV can cause Lymphoproliferativ e disorders including tumors. VCA IgM appears approximately 4 6 weeks after initial infection and declines after about 3 months.
1114 2136 EPSTEIN-BARR  VIRUS (EBV) DNA PCR NESTED POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION EDTA WB A/R India Epstein Barr virus (EBV) is the causative agent of Infectious mononucleosis (Glandular fever), Burkitt’s lymphoma and Nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Symptoms of Infectious mononucleosis are fever, sore throat and swollen lymph glands. It may involve spleen or liver also. EBV associated central nervous system (CNS) disease is most commonly associated with Primary CNS Lymphoma inpatients with AIDS.  CNS infection may also be detected in immunocompetent patients.
1115 1160 ERYTHROPOIETIN (EPO Level) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM / PLASMA-HEPARIN (IT IS IMPORTANT TO COLLECT SAMPLES AT A CONSISTENT TIME OF DAY. MORNING SAMPLES TAKEN BETWEEN 7:30 AM AND 12:00 NOON HAVE BEEN RECOMMENDED). CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED. 2-8°C (7 days); F (2 Months) India EPO is a hormone produced in the kidneys that regulates red cell production. The levels vary inversely with hematocrit. This assay is useful as an aid in distinguishing between primary and secondary Polycythemia. It also differentiates between appropriate secondary Polycythemia (High altitude, pulmonary disease, tobacco use) and inappropriate secondary Polycythemia (tumors). The assay helps to identify candidates for EPO replacement therapy (Chronic renal failure). The assay evaluates patients undergoing EPO replacement therapy who  demonstrate inadequate hematopoeitic response.
1116 2381 ESCHERICHIA COLI K1 ANTIGEN LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (FEW HRS);        -20°C (LONGER) India The current test is a rapid test for the qualitative detection of ESCHERICHIA COLI K1 ANTIGEN
1117 2381C ESCHERICHIA COLI K1 ANTIGEN LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION CSF IN PLAIN VACUTAINER / STERILE VIAL 2-8°C (FEW HRS);       -20°C (LONGER) India The current test is a rapid test for the qualitative detection of ESCHERICHIA COLI K1 ANTIGEN
1118 3156 ESTRIOL, UNCONJUGATED CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM (CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED) 2-8°C (7 days); F (3 months) India Free Estriol is a biochemical marker of second trimester screening for Down syndrome and Trisomy 18. It is a marker of fetal demise and helps in assessing preterm labor risk.
1119 1830K ESTROGEN RECEPTOR & PROGESTERONE RECEPTOR, IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN FOR 24-48 HRS/ PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING.* TIME AND DURATION OF FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTIONED ON THE TRF.* A India The primary indication to assess ER in breast cancer is to predict response to hormonal therapies such as tamoxifen, other selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) and aromatase inhibitors. Hormone receptor tests determine if an invasive breast cancer is positive for estrogen and progesterone receptors, helping to guide treatment.
1120 Z001K ESTROGEN RECEPTOR (ER) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India The estrogen receptor assay is routinely performed on breast carcinomas and certain other tumors in the body to assess responsiveness to hormone therapy and prognosis.
1121 3886 ESTRONE(E1) RADIO IMMUNOASSAY SERUM FASTING 2-8°C (24 HRS); F (3 months) India Estrone estimation is performed for the diagnosis and work-up of precocious and delayed puberty in females, and, to a lesser degree, in males. It is also used for diagnosis and work-up of suspected disorders of sex steroid metabolism, such as, aromatase deficiency and 17 alpha-hydroxylase deficiency. Serum estrogen estimation is useful as an adjunct to clinical assessment, imaging studies and bone mineral density measurement in the fracture risk assessment of postmenopausal women, and, to a lesser degree, older men.
It is also used as an aid in monitoring low-dose female hormone replacement therapy in post-menopausal women and also monitoring antiestrogen therapy (eg, aromatase inhibitor therapy).
1122 7165 EVEROLIMUS, EDTA/HEPARIN WHOLE BLOOD LCMSMS 1] Require EDTA/Heparin Whole Blood to be collected directly in relevant vaccutainers only. [Label with time of collection and administration of drug, preferably with drug dose.]
2] DOCTOR CONTACT DETAILS AND CLINICAL HISTORY  IS MANDATORY
2-8ºC India This assay helps to evaluate patient compliance & adjust dose while minimizing toxicity.
1123 1234 EXTRACTABLE NUCLEAR ANTIGEN (ANCEA, SS-A, SS-B, U1SNRNP, SCL-70) IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India This is a quantitative assay for quantifying specific IgG autoantibodies against Extractable Nuclear Antigens in human serum. It aids in the diagnosis of certain Systemic Rheumatic diseases.
1124 9893 FACTOR II (PROTHROMBIN) MUTATION DETECTION PCR Sequencing WB- EDTA + CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India The  prothrombin G20210A mutation  is the second  most common  inherited predisposition  to hypercoagulability. Heterozygous prothrombin G20210A mutation is  associated with  a  2  to  6 fold increased lifetime  relative risk  of VTE.  This risk  is  further increased  in combination  with pregnancy  and OCP use.
1125 9894 FACTOR V MUTATION DETECTION PCR-SEQUENCING WB- EDTA + CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India Factor V Leiden Mutation is a point mutation that causes resistance of Factor V degradation by Activated Protein C. This mutation is associated with increased risk of venous thrombosis. This assay is used in patients with clinically suspected Thrombophilia and family history of Factor V Leiden mutation.
1126 Z097K FACTOR VIII IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India This test is useful to evaluate a prolonged APTT. The most common form of Hemophilia is caused by deficiency of Factor VIII. Hemophilia A is an X linked disorder affecting between 1 in 5000 to 10000 males.
1127 1957 FACTOR XIII  ACTIVITY(Qualitative) CLOT SOLUBILITY FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA –  AT MINUS 20° C *(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)*+ CLINICAL HISTORY F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT        -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India Diminished Factor XIII levels may cause a bleeding disorder. Absent Factor XIII activity may be associated with spontaneous intracranial hemorrhage.
1128 7828 FACTOR XIII QUANTITATIVE ASSAY Chromogenic Platelet Poor Citrated plasma F India To detect Factor XIII deficiency
1129 1553 FIBRINOGEN IMMUNOFLOURESCENCE TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India immunofluorescence is a technique used in the laboratory to diagnose diseases of the skin, kidney, and other organ systems.
1130 4208 FIBRINOGEN DEGRADATION PRODUCTS (FDP) (SEMI QUANTITATIVE) LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C*(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India In DIC both thrombin and plasmin are generated. The breakdown products of fibrin clots and fibrinogen include D­Dimer and FDP. These analytes are also elevated when the coagulation and fibrinolytic systems are activated.
1131 4511 FIBROMETER ALD NEPHELOMETRY/Hematology/Enzyme Linked Immunoassay 10-12 HRS FASTING SERUM  (LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED) + CITRATED PLASMA + EDTA WB AND CITRATE WB (LIGHT BLUE TOP) CLINICAL HISTORY + (DOB, SAMPLE COLLECTION DATE, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY). ALL SAMPLES MUST BE COLLECTED SIMULTANEOUSLY ON SAME DAY AND SAME TIME. EDTA whole blood & Citrated whole blood-Ambient Rest all frozen  SERUM (F) India FibroMeter™ Alcohol package serves as a surrogate marker of liver fibrosis in terms of stage and quantification, in patients with Alcohol-related Liver Disease.
1132 4512 FIBROMETER NAFLD SPECTROPHOTOMETRY/Hematology/Enzyme Linked Immunoassay SERUM 10-12 HRS FASTING (LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED) +FASTING PLASMA FLOURIDE + CITRATED PLASMA + EDTA WB AND CITRATE WB (LIGHT BLUE TOP) (DOB, SAMPLE COLLECTION DATE, AGE, WEIGHT & GENDER IS MANDATORY) ALL SAMPLES MUST BE COLLECTED SIMULTANEOUSLY ON SAME DAY AND SAME TIME. EDTA whole blood & Citrated whole blood-Ambient Rest all frozen, SERUM (F) India FibroMeter™ NAFLD package serves as a surrogate marker of liver fibrosis in terms of stage and quantification, in patients with Metabolic Steatosis.
1133 4512V FIBROMETER VCTE SPECTROPHOTOMETRY/ NEPHELOMETRY 10-12 HRS FASTING SERUM  (LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED) CLINICAL HISTORY + (FIBROSCAN REPORT , DOB, SAMPLE COLLECTION DATE, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY). ALL SAMPLES MUST BE COLLECTED SIMULTANEOUSLY ON SAME DAY AND SAME TIME.  SERUM (F) India The Echosens FibroMeter profile serves as a surrogate marker of liver fibrosis, cirrhosis, and necro-inflammatory activity.
1134 4590 FIBROMETER VIRUS SPECTROPHOTOMETRY/NEPHELOMETRY/Hematology SERUM 10-12 HRS FASTING (LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED) + CITRATED PLASMA + EDTA WB AND CITRATE WB (LIGHT BLUE TOP) (DOB, SAMPLE COLLECTION DATE, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY).ALL SAMPLES MUST BE COLLECTED SIMULTANEOUSLY ON SAME DAY AND SAME TIME. EDTA whole blood & Citrated whole blood-Ambient Rest all frozen, SERUM (F) India FibroMeter is a blood test used to aid in the evaluation and management of liver fibrosis. This test was specifically designed for patients with chronic viral hepatitis (with or without HIV co-infection).
1135 5014 FIBROSIS-4 SCORE SPECTROPHOTOMETERY SERUM (LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED) + (CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) SERUM : 2-8°C (7 DAYS), F (> 7 DAYS) India Liver fibrosis stage is an important factor in determining prognosis and need for treatment in patients infected with HCV or HBV viruses, patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) or in Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) cases. Liver biopsies are typically used to assess liver fibrosis. FIB-4 (fibrosis-4 score) is a simple non-invasive index for estimating hepatic fibrosis based on a calculation derived from AST, ALT and platelet concentrations, and age. FIB4 score has been developed to predict liver fibrosis in patients with HBV/HCV and it is also useful for estimating liver fibrosis in patients with NAFLD/NASH.
• Low fibrosis scores may be appropriate candidates for medical management and may not require liver biopsy if FIB-4 scores continue to stay low.
• Severe fibrosis/cirrhosis scores may need liver biopsy for confirmation of cirrhosis unless there are other clinical or imaging signs of progression to end-stage liver disease.
1136 9337 FILARIA  IgG/IgM ANTIBODIES IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY SERUM/PLASMA (Heparin) or Whole blood heparin 2-8°C ( 5 days), >5 DAYS (-20ºC) India This assay helps in the detection of Microfilaria in the peripheral blood in both lymphatic and non lymphatic filariasis.
1137 RD1314 FIP1L1-PDGFRA GENE REARRANGEMENT NESTED RT-PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW (SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS)+CLINICAL HISTORY A India The FIP1L1­PDGFRA fusion gene  is present in approximately 10–15% of patients with Hyper Eosinophilic Syndrome who are sensitive to treatment with the tyrosine kinase inhibitor Imatinib.
1138 7644 FISH for 17p (TP53) abnormalities FISH BONE MARROW – SODIUM HEPARIN + CLINICAL HISTORY  SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [Please mention the CLINICAL HISTORY, blood picture (CBC Report) and medication of the patient on the TRF] A India Prognostic marker in patients with Multiple myeloma.
1139 7641 FISH for 20q deletion FISH WB OR BONE MARROW – SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [Please mention the CLINICAL HISTORY, blood picture (CBC Report) and medication of the patient on the TRF] A India Deletion of the long arm of chromosome 20, del(20q), is a common chromosomal abnormality in hematologic malignancies, observed in 10% of myeloproliferative neoplasms, 4% of myelodysplastic syndromes, and 2% of acute myeloid leukemias ( doi: 10.1182/bloodadvances.2016003129)
1140 7643 FISH for 5q deletion and monosomy/numerical abnormalities of chromosome 5 FISH WB OR BONE MARROW – SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [Please mention the CLINICAL HISTORY, blood picture (CBC Report) and medication of the patient on the TRF] A India Deletion/monosomy/ /numerical abnormalities  of the long arm of chromosome 5, del(5q), is a chromosomal abnormality in hematologic malignancies, observed in myelodysplastic syndromes, leukemias etc
1141 7642 FISH for 7q deletion and monosomy/numerical abnormalities of chromosome 7 FISH WB OR BONE MARROW – SODIUM HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [Please mention the CLINICAL HISTORY, blood picture (CBC Report) and medication of the patient on the TRF] A India Deletion/monosomy/ /numerical abnormalities  of the long arm of chromosome 5, del(5q), is a chromosomal abnormality in hematologic malignancies, observed in cystic fibrosis, williams syndrome, leukemias etc
1142 5813FF FISH in sex-mismatched BMT ( This test will be done at Guragaon Lab) FISH Whole blood or bone marrow in Heparin tube A/R India Following allogeneic bone marrow transplantation (BMT) careful monitoring of engraftment is important because the reappearance of the abnormal hematopoietic clone.
1143 7540 FLOW CROSSMATCH FLOW CYTOMETRY Sodium heparin WB of Donor &  serum of Patient & EDTA W BLOOD DONOR(Sample is to be collected at least after 3 days of last dialysis.  Cross match sample is to be collected after three weeks of last blood transfusion.  Mandatory  Documents to be enclosed with the sample are: Cold pack India The flow cytometric lymphocyte crossmatch is a standard technique for evaluating the compatibility of potential kidney transplant recipients and donors.
1144 1606 FLOWCYTOMETRY
ACUTE LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA PANEL (CD3,CD4,CD5,CD7,CD8,CD10,CD19,CD20,CD22,CD34,IgM, HLA-DR)
FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS DIRECT SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY(MANDATORY) IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India To help diagnose ACUTE LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA
1145 1607 FLOWCYTOMETRY PANEL; MYELOMA PANEL (CD38,CD56,CD19, CYTOPLASMIC KAPPA AND LAMBDA,CD45, CD138) FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA BM  / HEP  BM / SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Clonal restriction / B cell maturity marker
1146 5422 FLOWCYTOMETRY PANEL; NATURAL KILLER CELL EVALUATION (%CD16+56,ABS CD16+CD56) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA + HEPARIN
(WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS)
A India Measurement of NK cells is useful in patients of Bad Obstetric History and Recurrent Abortions. It is also useful in the diagnosis of Retinoblastoma, Medulloblastoma, Astrocytomas  and Neuroblastomas.
1147 1611 FLOWCYTOMETRY PANEL; NATURAL KILLER PANEL (CD3,CD16,CD56,CD45) FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA – WB / BM / / FLUIDS, HEPARIN WB / BM / FLUIDS + BLOOD / BM SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Natural Killer cells
1148 1608 FLOWCYTOMETRY
ACUTE LEUKEMIA PANEL (CD10,CD19,CD20,CD22,CD3,CD5,CD7,CD13,CD33,CD34,CD117,HLA DR) +cMPO/cCD3/cCD79a – as per case specific requirement
FLOW CYTOMETRY BM / WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | FLUID-EDTA I FLUID-HEPARIN I BM / WB / FLUIDS  DIRECT SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY (MANDATORY) IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India To help classify Acute leukemia (ALL, AML etc)
1149 7469 FLT3 MUTATION DETECTION PCR,SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This assay is useful for the qualitative detection of FLT3­TKD and FLT3­ITD mutations associated with Acute Myeloid Leukemia.
1150 8008 FLU REAL TIME PCR REAL TIME PCR NASAL/THROAT/NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB IN VTM + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT F India This test is intended for the detection of Influenza A H1N1 virus (Swine Flu). Real Time PCR assay is based on the detection of 4 targets in the sample namely    influenza A, H1 Influenza A, H1 Influenza A ( Subtype H1) & Human RNase P gene which serves as a positive control for the presence of human nucleic acids.
1151 4952 FLUID BETA -2 TRANSFERRIN IMMUNOFIXATION ELECTROPHORESIS EAR FLUID/NASAL FLUID,CSF AND SERUM(SPECIMEN SHOULD PREFERABLY REACH SRL,MUMBAI  PREFERABLY WITHIN 24HRS OF COLLECTION).IT IS MANDATORY TO SEND SERUM ALONG WITH THE FLUID SAMPLE STRICTLY IN COLD CONDITION India The presence of Beta­2 Transferrin in nasal or ear fluid, or in wound drainage following head trauma, surgery or from tumors or congenital malformation, clearly indicates CSF leaking into these passages or fluids creating a pathway for life­threatening central nervous system infection.
1152 7528 FLUID, ACE Kinetic Method CSF COLD India Quantitative measurement of ACE in CSF. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) is used in the assessment of neurosarcoidosis. The major sources of ACE are macrophages and epithelial cells. Patients with sarcoidosis display elevated levels of ACE.
1153  8225 FLUORESCENT TREPONEMAL ANTIBODIES (FTA-ABS) Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay Serum from 1 SST. Ship refrigerated or frozen.. Room 6HRS, Refrig- 1 Week, Frozen 2 Weeks India #N/A
1154 1677BF FMC7 PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA AND HEPARIN WB/BONE MARROW+CLINICAL & TREATMENT HISTORY (SAMPLE TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India Prognostic CLL / NHL marker
1155 Z162K FOLLICLE STIMULATING HORMONE (FSH) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India This antibody is used in the identification of FSH in pituitary adenomas.
1156 RD1442 FOOD DETECT Immunochromatography SERUM A/R India Food allergy test
1157 RD1306 FOOD INTOLERANCE TEST PROTEIN MICROARRAY SERUM/PLASMA/ETDA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT R/R/A India Non­toxic reactions to food can be immune mediated (food allergy) or non immune mediated (food intolerance). Intolerance to food may be enzymatic or pharmacological but in certain instances, it is undefined. Such reactions are independent of IgE mediation. Adverse reactions include gastrointestinal, skin & pulmonary.
1158 RD1325 FRAGILE X (FMR 1) MUTATION SCREEN TRIPLET PRIMED PCR FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Mutations in the FMR1 gene cause fragile X syndrome. Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. This test is used to determine the number of time the CGG triplet is repeated to diagnose Fragile X syndrome.
1159 3248FTE FREE  TESTOSTERONE ENZYME IMMUNO ASSAY SERUM F India Circulating Testosterone consists  of testosterone bound  to  SHBG and  the bioavailable  (Free  &  Bound  to Albumin).  The latter  is biologically  active. In men approximately 40% of Total testosterone  is albumin  bound while  in women approximately 20%  is albumin bound.
1160 3245 FREE ANDROGEN INDEX CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM ( AGE+GENDER+LMP+CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED) SAMPLE TO BE DRAWN IN THE MORNING HOURS. 2-8°C (48 HRS); F (>48 HRS) India The Androgen index is a ratio of Testosterone & SHBG. It is an indicator of Free Testosterone and has been found to be useful in evaluation of hirsutism.
1161 3285 FREE BETA HCG (FBHCG) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM (CLINICAL DETAILS ); LMP DATE REQUIRED 2-8°C (7 days); F (>7 days) India Maternal serum Free beta HCG assessment between 9­13 weeks, has significant utility in first Trimester Prenatal Screening for Down Syndrome and other chromosomal anomalies. This test also helps in the diagnosis and monitoring of Trophoblastic diseases and certain Testicular tumors where ratio of Free beta HCG to Total HCG is high. Some tumors secrete only free beta HCG andvirtually no Total HCG is detected.
1162 3839I FREE PROTEIN S IMMUNO TURBIDIMETRY FROZEN CITRATED PLASMA FROZEN India The congenital deficiencies of PS are classified in three types
– Type I deficiencies correspond to reduced antigen levels of both total and FPS.
– Type II deficiencies are characterized by a reduced PS activity but with normal antigen levels of both total and FPS.
– Type III deficiencies are defined by a reduced antigen level and activity of FPS but the antigen level of total PS remains normal.

Acquired FPS deficiencies can be found in several clinical states ; eg  inflammatory syndromes due to the  increase  of C4b-BP, hepatic disorders, nephrotic syndrome, treatments with oral anticoagulants, oral contraceptives, L – asparaginase. FPS levels progressively decrease in pregnancy. The congenital or acquired deficiency of PS increases the risk of thrombo-embolism, owing to a decrease of blood anticoagulant potential. It may produce recurrent thrombotic episodes.

1163 3935 FRUCTOSAMINE SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM (CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) AVOID LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SPECIMEN 2-8°C (2 WEEKS);        F (5 WEEKS) India This assay is useful to assess intermediate term glycemic control. Fructosamine reflects glycemic control in diabetic patients over the previous 2 to 3 weeks. High values indicate poor control.
1164 5660 FUNGAL SUSCEPTIBILITY MIC PANEL BROTH DILUTION PURE CULTURE OF YEAST R India fungal antibiotic suceptibility test
1165 5661 FUNGAL SUSCEPTIBILITY MIC SINGLE DRUG BROTH DILUTION PURE CULTURE OF YEAST R India The fungal susceptibility test is a quantitative test, based on the principle of determination of the minimum inhibitory concentration of antifungal agents using the broth dilution technique.
1166 5322B FUNGUS CULTURE & STAIN (BLOOD)(FUNGUS ID) FUNGUS IDENTIFICATION- 1)CULTURE 2)IDENTIFICATION OF YEASTS BY GERM TUBE TEST/CHROMOGENIC MEDIA/AUTOMATED IDENTIFICATION SYSTEM & MOLDS BY COLONY MORPHOLOGY & MICROSCOPY BLOOD INOCULATED IN BACTEC BOTTLE (MYCOSIS) A India To detect and identify fungal organism
1167 5322 FUNGUS CULTURE, STAIN & IDENTIFICATION FUNGUS IDENTIFICATION- 1)CULTURE 2)IDENTIFICATION OF YEASTS BY GERM TUBE TEST/CHROMOGENIC MEDIA/AUTOMATED IDENTIFICATION SYSTEM & MOLDS BY COLONY MORPHOLOGY & MICROSCOPY SPUTUM / CSF / FLUID / URINE / ASPIRATE / TISSUE BIOPSY- STERILE CONTAINER,  SWABS NOT ACCEPTED A/R India To detect and identify fungal organism
1168 5324 FUNGUS IDENTIFICATION FUNGUS IDENTIFICATION- 1)CULTURE 2)IDENTIFICATION OF YEASTS BY GERM TUBE TEST/CHROMOGENIC MEDIA/AUTOMATED IDENTIFICATION SYSTEM & MOLDS BY COLONY MORPHOLOGY & MICROSCOPY PURE CULTURE OF FUNGUS ON AGAR SLANT R India To detect and identify fungal organism
1169 9212RFX G6PD QUALITATIVE REFLEX  G6PD QUANTITATIVE ESTIMATION DYE DECOLORIZATION + SPECTROPHOTOMETRY WB-EDTA A & FOR G6PD QUANTITATIVE ESTIMATION (R) India To determine whether you have an inherited G6PD deficienc
1170 1146QT G-6-PD, QUANTITATIVE, BLOOD SPECTROPHOTOMETRY WB-EDTA ( CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) R India G­6­PD deficiency is a sex linked disorder affecting males whereas females are the carriers. More than 300 variants of G6PD are known, hence deficiency can range from asymptomatic to acute hemolytic episodes. These episodes can be triggered by drugs, ingestion of fava beans, viral and bacterial infections. This assay is useful for evaluation of individuals with Coomb’s negative non­spherocytic hemolytic anemia.
1171 1728 GALACTOMANNAN Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM(Care must be taken not to contaminate the sample with fungal spores and/or bacteria.Trasnport and store samples in sealed tubes, unexposed to air) 2-8º C (48 HRS),  >48  HRS 70 °C India Galactomannan (GM) is a polysaccharide component of the Aspergillus cell wall released from growing hyphae. Serum galactomannan can often be detected between 7 to 14 days before other diagnostic clues become apparent. Monitoring of galactomannan levels can potentially allow initiation of presumptive antifungal therapy before life­threatening infection occurs. The test aids in the diagnosis of Invasive Aspergillosis (IA) and assesses response to therapy
1172 RD1434 Galactosemia (GALT) Gene Mutation PCR Sequencing WHOLE BLOOD EDTA/BLOOD SPOT AMBIENT India Galactose­1­phos phate uridylyltransferase (or GALT) is an enzyme responsible for converting ingested galactose to glucose. This test helps in determining the mutation responsible for Galactosemia.
1173 2405 GAMMA INTERFERON (M.tuberculosis Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay WHOLE BLOOD TO BE COLLECTED IN 5 ml BD ENDOTOXIN FREE HEPARIN TUBE PROVIDED BY SRL FROM SUNDAY TO FRIDAY AND TRANSPORTED WITHIN 12 HRS OF COLLECTION. A India Latent tuberculosis infection  (LTBI) is a non­communicabl e asymptomatic condition  that persists  for  many years and  may progress  to tuberculous disease.   The main  aim  of diagnosing LTBI is  to  consider medical  treatment for  preventing  the disease.   This test  is a  measure of  cell  mediated immune response to  antigens simulating  the mycobacterial proteins.  A positive  result indicates  that mycobacterium tuberculosis infection  is  likely but  further medical & diagnostic evaluation   is necessary. This test  is  usually negative  in individuals vaccinated  with Mycobacterium bovis BCG.
1174 1419 GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS CULTURE CULTURE VAGINAL / CERVICAL SWABS / SECRETIONS IN TRANSPORT MEDIA A India To detect and identify GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS
1175 3175 GASTRIN CHEMILUMINESCENCE FASTING SERUM (CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED) FROZEN: UP TO 30 days India Gastrin is a peptide hormone produced by mucosal G cells of gastric antrum. Gastrin levels are pathologically increased in Gastrinoma, Gastric outlet obstruction and Hypo / Achlorhydria. This assay is used to investigate patients with Achlorhydria / Pernicious anemia and ZollingerEllison syndrome. The assay is extremely useful in the diagnosis of Gastrinoma.
1176 5013 GASTROENTERITIS SCREENING PANEL MICROSCOPY/ CULTURE STOOL SAMPLE A India Adenovirus is one of the commonest causes of severe gastroenteritis in infants and young children. There are 51 Adenovirus serotypes that have been identified.
1177 Z273K GATA-3 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India GATA3 is involved in luminal cell differentiation in the mammary gland and appears to control a set of genes involved in the differentiation and proliferation of breast cancer. The expression of GATA3 is associated with the expression of estrogen receptor-alpha (ER) in breast cancer. GATA3 has been shown to be a novel marker for bladder cancer. GATA3 stains almost all of urothelial carcinomas, but stained no prostate or renal carcinomas.
1178 Z256K GCDFP-15 (ANTI-HUMAN GROSS CYSTIC DISEASE FLUID PROTEIN-15) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India GCDFP15 is expressed in apocrine epithelia, lacrimal, ceruminous and Moll’s glands, as well as in numerous serous cells of the submandibular, tracheal, bronchial, sublingual and minor salivary glands. It can be of use in the identification of breast carcinoma, salivary duct carcinoma and apocrine epithelia.
1179 7577 GCV RESISTANCE BY SEQUENCING PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA PLASMA /EDTA WHOLE BLOOD +  CLINICAL HISTORY F/A India UGT1A1 gene polymorphism is associated with Gidlbert syndrome, Crigler Nijjar syndrome and with irinotecan toxicity
1180 RD1487 GDNEXT Next Generation Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India next-generation sequencing can detect genetic abnormalities using less DNA than required for traditional DNA sequencing approaches.
1181 RD1324UL GENE EXPERT (XPERT  MTB / RIF) REAL TIME PCR ON GENEXPERT PLATFORM SPUTUM  / BAL A/R India #N/A
1182 RD1411 GENETIC DISORDERS: Freidreichs Ataxia mutation analysis PCR – FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal recessive inherited disease that causes progressive damage to the nervous system. It manifests in initial symptoms of poor coordination such as gait disturbance; it can also lead to scoliosis, heart disease and diabetes, but does not affect cognitive function. This test detects expansion of an intronic GAA triplet repeat in the FXN gene which leads to reduced expression of the mitochondrial protein frataxin
1183 RD1417 GENETIC DISORDERS; ANGELMANS SYNDROME MS PCR Methylation Specific – PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India Prader­Willi syndrome (PWS) and Angelman syndrome (AS) are clinically distinct neurodevelopment al genetic disorders that map to 15q11­q13. The primary phenotypes are attributable to loss of expression of imprinted genes within this region which can arise by means of a number of mechanisms. The most sensitive single approach to diagnosing both PWS and AS is to study methylation patterns within 15q11­q13
1184 RD1326 GENETIC DISORDERS; DRPLA Gene analysis PCR – FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India Dentatorubral­palli doluysian atrophy (DRPLA) is an autosomal dominant spinocerebellar degeneration caused by an expansion of a CAG repeat encoding a polyglutamine tract in the atrophin­1 protein.It is also known as Haw River Syndrome and Naito­Oyanagi disease. It is characterized by   ataxia, choreoathetosis, dementia, and psychiatric disturbance in adults and ataxia, myoclonus, seizures, and progressive intellectual deterioration in children.
1185 RD1418 GENETIC DISORDERS; PRADER- WILLI SYNDROME MS PCR Methylation Specific – PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India Prader­Willi syndrome (PWS) and Angelman syndrome (AS) are clinically distinct neurodevelopment al genetic disorders that map to 15q11­q13. The primary phenotypes are attributable to loss of expression of imprinted genes within this region which can arise by means of a number of mechanisms. The most sensitive single approach to diagnosing both PWS and AS is to study methylation patterns within 15q11­q13
1186 RD1410 GENETIC DISORDERS; RETT SYNDROME DNA SEQUENCING ( MECP2 MUTATION) DNA SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Genetically, Rett syndrome (RTT) is caused by mutations in the gene MECP2 located on the X chromosome (which is involved in transcriptional silencing and epigenetic regulation of methylated DNA), and can arise sporadically or from germline mutations. In less than 10% of RTT cases, mutations in the genes CDKL5 or FOXG1 have also been found to resemble it. Rett syndrome is initially diagnosed by clinical observation, but the diagnosis is definitive when there is a genetic defect in the MECP2 gene.
1187 RD1456 GENETIC DISORDERS; SCA 12  (SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-12) PCR-Fragment analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD AMBIENT India The assay detects CAG repeats in the SCA12 (ATXN12) gene. To help diagnose SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-12
1188 RD1413 GENETIC DISORDERS; SCA 2 (SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-2) PCR – FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India Spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA) or also known as Spinocerebellar atrophy or Spinocerebellar degeneration, is a progressive, degenerative genetic disease with multiple types. In SCA 2 there is a CAG trinucleotide repeat in chromosome 12q which gets affected which results in abnormal Ataxin 2 protein production
1189 RD1414 GENETIC DISORDERS; SCA 3 (SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-3) PCR – FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India Spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA) or also known as Spinocerebellar atrophy or Spinocerebellar degeneration, is a progressive, degenerative genetic disease with multiple types. In SCA 3 there is a CAG trinucleotide repeat in chromosome 14q which gets affected which results in abnormal Ataxin 3 protein production
1190 RD1415 GENETIC DISORDERS; SCA 6 (SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-6) PCR – FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India Spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA) or also known as Spinocerebellar atrophy or Spinocerebellar degeneration, is a progressive, degenerative genetic disease with multiple types. In SCA 6 there is a CAG trinucleotide repeat in chromosome 19p which gets affected which results in abnormal CACNA1A protein.
1191 RD1416 GENETIC DISORDERS; SCA 7 (SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-7) PCR – FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India Spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA) or also known as Spinocerebellar atrophy or Spinocerebellar degeneration, is a progressive, degenerative genetic disease with multiple types. In SCA 7 there is a CAG trinucleotide repeat in chromosome 3p which gets affected which results in abnormal Ataxin 7 protein.
1192 RD1455 GENETIC DISORDERS; SCA10 (SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-10) PCR-Fragment analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD AMBIENT India The assay detects ATTCT repeats in the SCA10 (ATXN10) gene. To help diagnose SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-10
1193 RD1457 GENETIC DISORDERS; SCA17  (SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-17) PCR-Fragment analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD AMBIENT India The assay detects CAG/CAA repeats in the SCA17 (ATXN17) gene. To help diagnose SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-17
1194 9443 GENETIC DISORDERS; SMA CARRIER DETECTION MLPA-FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India SMA of all types is associated with homozygous mutations in the survival motor neuron 1 gene (SMN1). This test detects homozygous deletion of SMN1 Exon 7 and or Exon 8 which accounts for 95% of SMA. It detects both active and carrier status of the disease.
1195 2408 GENITAL MYCOPLASMA / UREAPLASMA CULTURE CULTURE URETHRAL / CERVICAL SWABS,URINE,SEMEN IN TRANSPORT MEDIA SPECIMEN IN TRANSPORT MEDIA AT RT UP TO 48 HRS; AT 2-8°C UP TO 72 HRS India The current test is intended for the culture of genital mycoplasmas,namely M. hominis and U. urealyticum.
1196 7663 GIARDIA LAMBILA ANTIGEN DETACTION FROM STOOL; RAPID CARD TEST RAPID IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER A/R India The current test is a rapid test for the qualitative detection of Giardia lamblia in stool samples.
1197 RD1443 GIST PDGFRA GENE MUTATIONS PCR SEQUENCING TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India FIP1L1­PDGFRA rearrangement is generally found in Chronic Eosinophilic Leukemia, but the presentation can be as AML, T­lymphoblastic lymphoma, or both simultaneously. Rearrangement is usually cryptic by routine cytogenetics.
1198 Z084K GLIAL FIBRILLARY ACIDIC PROTEIN (GFAP) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Glial Fibrillary Acidic Protein (GFAP) is the major protein found in astrocytes and its expression is evidence of astroglial origin and differentiation. Gliomas are the most common cerebral neoplasm in adults and include astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas and glioblastomas. It can also be demonstrated in ependymal cells, ependymomas, subependyomas, glioblastomas, mixed central nervous system neoplasms and gangliomas. It is detected in immature but not mature oligodendrocytes and neurons. Anti-GFAP antibodies do not cross-react with neurons, fibroblasts or muscle cells. Anti-GFAP antibodies are useful in differentiating primary gliomas from metastatic lesions in the brain and for documenting astrocytic differentiation in tumors outside the central nervous system.
1199 4551 GLIOMA PANEL (1P/19Q, IDH1/2, MGMT) FISH/Pyrosequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Oligodendroglioma tumors exhibit simultaneous deletions of 1p and 19q in two thirds of cases. These deletions have been associated with a favorableresponse to chemotherapy with long survival.
1200 RD1419 Glucose-6 Phospahte Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Gene Mutations PCR Sequencing WHOLE BLOOD EDTA AMBIENT India This assay is useful for the detection of mutations in G6PD gene. G6PD deficiency, also known as favism (after the fava bean) is an X­linked recessive genetic condition that predisposes to hemolysis (spontaneous destruction of red blood cells) and resultant jaundice in response to a number of triggers, such as certain foods, illness, or medication.
1201 9357 GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHATE DEHYDROGENASE (G6PD) > 1 MONTH FEA Dried blood spots Ambient India To detect GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHATE DEHYDROGENASE deficiency
1202 3193 GLUTAMIC ACID DECARBOXYLASE (GAD-65) IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (48 hrs),  >48  hrs -20 °C India GAD­65 antibody is useful to diagnose Insulin dependent Diabetes mellitus (IDDM), to assess risk for development of IDDM, to predictonset of IDDM and risk of development of related endocrine disorders like Thyroiditis.
1203 1674BR GLYCOPHORIN A (ERYTHROID) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | BM / EDTA/ HEPARIN/ FLUIDS/SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Erythroid cell marker
1204 Z278K GLYCOPHORIN C IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India N/A
1205 Z274K GLYPICAN 3 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India A useful marker to differentiate between benign (negative) and malignant (positive) liver diseases (HCCs).
1206 Z279K GRANZYM B IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Granzyme B antibody labels activated human cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) and natural killer (NK) cells. This marker can be a useful tool for the identification of anaplastic large cell lymphoma, large granular lymphocytic leukemias, hepatosplenic T-cell lymphomas, intestinal T-cell lymphomas, NK-like T-cell lymphomas, NK-cell lymphomas, nasal T/NK-cell lymphomas, and subcutaneous panniculitic T-cell lymphomas of T or NK phenotype.
1207 Z163K GROWTH HORMONE (GH) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India This marker is a useful in classification of pituitary tumors and the study of pituitary disease (acromegaly).
1208 3183 GROWTH HORMONE STIMULATION TEST CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM – RECOMMENDED DOSE INSULIN – 0.1 – 0.15 U/KG , ARGININE 0.5 GM/KG, GLUCAGON 0.03 MG/KG IM ( 5 SAMPLES COLLECTED 30 MINUTES APART, FIRST SAMPLE COLLECTED BEFORE STIMULATING AGENT) FROZEN: UP TO 2 Months India This test is used to demonstrate Growth Hormone deficiency in cases of growth retardation, short stature and Dwarfism. To diagnose Growth hormone deficiency as a cause of retardation, at least two different stimulants should be used on different days for confirmation. Exercise to be used as an initial stimulant followed by any other provocative agent.
1209 Z275K H CALDASMON IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India The h-caldesmon is predominantly expressed in smooth muscle and a subset of myoepithelial cells,
1210 9981 H.PYLORI ANTIGEN DETECTION RAPID IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER R India This assay aids in the diagnosis of H.pylori infection and monitor response during and post therapy in patients for treatment effectiveness, relapse or eradication.
1211 9606 HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE B ANTIGEN LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (FEW HRS);        -20°C (LONGER) India rapid test to detect HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE B ANTIGEN
1212 9606C HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE B ANTIGEN, CSF LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION CSF 2-8°C (FEW HRS);        -20°C (LONGER) India rapid test to detect HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZAE B ANTIGEN in CSF
1213 3832 HAM TEST (ACIDIFIED SERUM LYSIS TEST) HEMOLYSIS EDTA WB  AND  SERUM A/R India PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of hemopoiesis in which patient’s red cells are abnormally sensitive to lysis by normal constituents of plasma.
1214 7178 HANTA VIRUS-IGM, SERUM BY EIA EIA SERUM R/F India quantitative test to measure HANTA VIRUS-IGM
1215 1519I HAPTOGLOBIN NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (> 7 DAYS-90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Haptoglobin is a binding protein for hemoglobin. Low levels are seen in Chronic intravascular hemolysis, regular strenuous exercise and severe liver disease. Increase occurs as an acute phase reaction. This assay is useful for confirmation of Intravascular hemolysis.
1216 7375 HAPTOGLOBIN GENOTYPING  PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY A India The haptoglobin Hp 1/2 polymorphism has been associated with the prevalence of infections, autoimmune diseases, cardiovascular diseases, and other disorders, thus suggesting a broad clinical significance. The Hp 2­2 phenotype was over represented in patients with more severe forms of myocardial infarction. This test is useful for genotyping of the Haptoglobin gene
1217 2478 HAV RNA PCR REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE PCR EDTA PLASMA F India This assay is useful for the detection of Hepatitis A virus in the plasma of the patient.
1218 9210RFX HB VARIANT REFLEX WITH RED CELL INDICES  (PERFORMED IF HB A2 OR HB F IS ABNORMAL) / SICKLING TEST (PERFORMED IF HB S IS ABNORMAL) HPLC/ AUTOMATED  CELL COUNTER / MICROSCOPY /DEOXYGENATION WB-EDTA+ BLOOD SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT+ AGE & SEX A India HB VARIANT detects abnormal forms of haemoglobin that are often inherited and may cause a blood disorder. A sickle cell test is a simple blood test used to determine if you have sickle cell disease (SCD) or sickle cell trait. CBC is done to determine your general health status; to screen for, diagnose, or monitor any one of a variety of diseases and conditions that affect blood cells, such as anemia, infection, inflammation, bleeding disorder or cancer
1219 9218RFX HBeAG NEGATIVE  REFLEX TO HBV PRECORE & BASAL CORE MUTATION Chemiluminescent Microparticle Immunoassay (CMIA)/ COBAS TAQMAN & NESTED PCR SEQUENCING SERUM + PLASMA EDTA (FROZEN ONLY) FOR HBEAG TEST —2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C, F India HBeAG – qualitative
determination of the hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) in human serum and plasma.  hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) is used as a marker of active viral proliferation that might lead to active liver damage. HBV PRECORE & BASAL CORE MUTATION- To detect HBV PRECORE & BASAL CORE MUTATION. BCP and PC gene mutations were reported to cause HBeAg-negative chronic hepatitis B infection by affecting HBeAg expression which ultimately leads to HBeAg loss and negativity with a severe form of chronic liver disease progression. Moreover, the presences of such genes change often need long-term HBV therapy that makes patients susceptible to nucleos(t)ide analogues drug resistance gene evolution
1220 Z280K HBME-1 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India HBME1 is an anti-mesothelial monoclonal antibody that recognizes an unknown antigen on the microvilli of mesothelioma cells. It stains normal mesothelial cells as well as epithelial mesotheliomas in a thick membrane pattern. This antibody also reacts with some carcinomas showing cytoplasmic immunostaining.
1221 RD1305 HBV DRUG RESISTANCE (Lamivudine, Telbivudine, Adefovir, Tenofovir and Entecavir) NESTED PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA PLASMA/SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY F India For detection & genotyping of HBV. The mutations analysed include M204I (YMDD to YIDD), L180M, M204V (YMDD to YVDD), A181 T/V and N236T. These mutations are known to cause resistance to Lamivudine, Telbivudine, Entecavir, Adefovir and Tenofovir.
1222 9973 HBV VIRAL LOAD BY REAL TIME PCR REAL TIME PCR SERUM / PLASMA EDTA F India This test is intended for use as an aid in management of HBV infected patients and is not intended for use in the initial diagnosis or confirmation of HBV infection. It aids in assessing viral response to antiviral treatment as measured by changes in plasma HBV DNA levels.
1223 8136 HBV  QUANTITATIVE BY COBAS TAQMAN COBAS TAQMAN SERUM / PLASMA EDTA F India The viral load provides the direct and reliable estimate of the level of HBV replication. Quantitation of HBV DNA level is important as it serves to be a prognostic marker of HBV infection. It is used for establishing baseline levels in patients before initiation of the therapy and for monitoring therapeutic response and disease progression. A sudden rise in the viral load may indicate emergence of resistant strains during the therapy.
1224 DT4102 HCV ALPHA (HCV RNA Quantitative and HCV Genotyping) PCR SEQUENCING  & COBAS TAQMAN PLASMA- EDTA F India HCV genotyping assay determines the Genotypes 1,2,3,4,5 & 6 and their subtypes in positive cases. HCV genotype 1 is more difficult to treat than Genotypes 2 & 3 and causes more severe liver disease. This test should not be used for screening of blood or blood products or as a diagnostic test to confirm the presence of HCV infection.
1225 5968 HCV COMBO PCR SEQUENCING  & COBAS TAQMAN PLASMA- EDTA F India This test is done for HCV genotyping and to detect HCV viral load. Viral load is a monitoring test and hence should not be used for screening or diagnostic purpose.
1226 9972 HCV VIRAL LOAD BY REAL TIME PCR REAL TIME PCR PLASMA-EDTA F India to detect HCV viral load
1227 7516 HCV4 (HCV RNA Qualitative AND HCV Antibodies)  REAL TIME POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION/ CMIA SERUM. FOR ECLIA/ PLASMA-EDTA FOR PCR F India • To detect HCV infection in individuals actively infected during the sero-negative window period.
• To detect the infection in immunocompromised individuals & individuals with chronic HCV as there are absence of serological markers.
• Can be used as a confirmatory test for individuals who have equivocal serologic evaluations(1).
1228 8400 HDV RNA PCR REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE PCR EDTA PLASMA F India This assay is useful for the detection of Hepatitis D virus in the plasma of the patient.
1229 4113 HE4 (Human Epididymis Protein-4) CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (4 DAYS);  -20°C (>4 DAYS) India HE4 is the tumor marker of choice with high specificity than CA 125 in Ovarian cancer. To improve sensitivity and specificity, an algorithm, ROMA, using both CA125 & HE4 has been suggested to indicate risk of Ovarian malignancy in patients presenting with abdominal masses.
1230 3901 HEALTH KUNDLI-BRIDE/GROOM (ABO Rh Blood Group, VDRL, HBsAg, HIV 1&2 Antibodies, HB Variant Analysis) Chemiluminescent Microparticle Immunoassay (CMIA)+Flocculation+ Tube Agglutination+HPLC EDTA-WHOLE BLOOD+SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India Routine health checkup for Bride/ Groom
1231 RD1402 HEART ENSURE PANEL PCR-Sequencing EDTA WHOE BLOOD AMBIENT/COLD India Routine heart health checkup
1232 7736 HELICOBACTER  PYLORI  IgA  ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2 DAYS- 20 °C India Colonization with H.pylori is associated with increased risk of developing gastritis, peptic ulcer disease and gastric malignancies. Antibody IgA may be elevated for years in infected individuals. Following treatment, values generally decrease, but may not become undetectable.
1233 7761 HELICOBACTER  PYLORI  IgG  ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2 DAYS- 20 °C India Colonization with H.pylori is associated with increased risk of developing gastritis, peptic ulcer disease and gastric malignancies. Antibody IgG may not be accompanied by an increase in IgM or IgA antibodies. It may be elevated for years in infected individuals. Following treatment, values generally decrease, but may not become undetectable.
1234 7986 HELICOBACTER  PYLORI  IgM  ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (2 DAYS), >2 DAYS- 20 °C India qualitative measurement of IgM class antibodies against HELICOBACTER PYLORI
1235 1221DLW HEMODIALYSIS WATER CULTURE CULTURE DIALYSIS WATER/ DIALYSATE/ R. O. WATER IN STERILE LEAK PROOF CONTAINER R India To detect and identify infection causing organism
1236 3834 HEMOGLOBIN VARIANT ANALYSIS HPLC WB-EDTA (AGE, CLINICAL HISTORY  IN SPECIFIED FORMAT AND CBC(IF PERFORMED) FINDINGS MANDATORY) A India This assay is useful in the diagnosis of Beta Thalassemia. It quantitates the percent of fetal hemoglobin and assists in the diagnosis of disorders with elevated levels of HbF.
1237 3897 HEMOPHILIA PANEL (APTT, FACTOR VIII, FACTOR IX) CLOT BASED FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA *-  AT MINUS 20° C(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + CLINICAL HISTORY F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) is the most common severe congenital bleeding X­linked disorder affecting 1:5000 to 10,000 males. Females are usually carriers but  canhave Hemophilia A if there is unbalanced Lyonization of the normal X­chromosome, Turner’s syndrome or daughters of an affected male and a carrier female. Hemophilia B / Christmas disease (Factor IX deficiency) is a severe congenital X­linked bleeding disorder affecting 1:25,000 to 30,000 males. Factor IX activity levels during childhood remain at about 75% of adult levels.
1238 Z257K HEPAR-1 [ANTI-HUMAN HEPATOCYTE ) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Recognizes mitochondrial antigen of hepatocytes
1239 2463 HEPATITIS A & B VIRUS EVALUATI0N (HEP A IgG & IgM, HBCORE TOTAL & IgM, HBsABS, HBsAg, HBeABS, HBeAg) CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C India Acute Viral Hepatitis is a systemic infection affecting the liver predominantly. Hepatitis A , B, C & E are common causes of Acute Viral Hepatitis producing clinically similar illnesses ranging from asymptomatic to fatal acute infections. Subclinical persistent infections of Hepatitis B & C virus may progress to Chronic liver disease with Cirrhosis and even Hepatocellular carcinoma.
1240 6014 HEPATITIS A IGG  ANTIBODY CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8º C (3 DAYS), >3 DAYS- 20 °C India HAV is a self limiting disease transmitted by the fecal­oral route. Anti HAV IgG levels rise quickly once the virus is cleared and may persist for many years. Presence of Anti HAV IgG indicates immunity against the virus.
1241 2460 HEPATITIS A VIRUS IgG & IgM ANTIBODIES CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C India rapid test to detect  IgG & IgM  Antibodies  to HEPATITIS A (HAV)
1242 2451 HEPATITIS A VIRUS IgM ANTIBODIES CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C India HAV is a self limiting disease transmitted by the fecal­oral route. Anti HAV IgM antibodies are detectable by the time symptoms appear, usually 15­ 45 days after exposure. They fall to undetectable levels by 6 months after HAV infection.
1243 2455 HEPATITIS B E ANTIBODY, SERUM CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 days) ,>7 days -20°C India HBeAg is found in early phase of HBV infection and correlates with infectivity. This assay is useful for the diagnosis and monitoring of HBV infectivity. It also determines infection status in chronically HBV infected patients.
1244 7658 HEPATITIS B surface antigen  virus ,Qunatitative CMIA SERUM FROZEN/REFRIGERATED India This assay is useful for the diagnosis of acute, recent and chronic HBV infection. It also determines the chronic Hepatitis B infection status. It is the first serologic marker to appear in the serum at 6 to 16 weeks following exposure to HBV. It usually disappears 1 to 2 months after the onset of symptoms. Persistence >6 months indicates chronic carrier state or chronic HBV infection.
1245 Z076K HEPATITIS B SURFACE ANTIGEN (IHC) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India #N/A
1246 2449 HEPATITIS B SURFACE ANTIGEN NEUTRALIZATION (WITH CONFIRMATION) CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C 14 DAYS) ,>14 DAYS -20°C India The detection of HbsAg in human serum or plasma indicates an infection by the Hepatitis B virus.
1247 7476 HEPATITIS B VIRUS ( HBV )PRECORE MUTATION NESTED PCR SEQUENCING EDTA PLASMA / SERUM +CLINICAL HISTORY F India  Due to limited population specific data, currently this test is meant for research use only. A precore mutant is a variety of hepatitis B virus that does not produce hepatitis B virus e antigen (HBeAg).
1248 7475 HEPATITIS B VIRUS BASAL CORE PROMOTER MUTATION (HBV BASAL) NESTED PCR SEQUENCING EDTA PLASMA / SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY F India The test identifies substitution mutations in the HBV Basal Core Promoter gene np 1762 and 1764 and codon 28 (np 1896) of HBV PreCore gene
1249 Z077K HEPATITIS B VIRUS CORE ANTIGEN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Hepatitis B surface antibody targets Hepatitis B Virus Surface Antigen in IHC applications.
1250 2457 HEPATITIS B VIRUS CORE IgM ANTIBODIES CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C India This assay is useful for diagnosis of Acute Hepatitis B infection. It identifies Acute HBV infection in the core window period when HBsAg and Anti HBs are negative. It also differentiates between acute and chronic HBV infection in the presence of positive Anti HBc.
1251 9890 HEPATITIS B VIRUS DNA ,QUANTITATIVE
(HBV  QUANTITATIVE BY COBAS TAQMAN)
COBAS TAQMAN PLASMA EDTA/ SERUM F India  The viral load provides the direct and reliable estimate of the level of HBV replication. Quantitation of HBV DNA level is important as it serves to be a prognostic marker of HBV infection. It is used for establishing baseline levels in patients before initiation of the therapy and for monitoring therapeutic response and disease progression. A sudden rise in the viral load may indicate emergence of resistant strains during the therapy.
Viral load is a monitoring test and hence should not be used for screening or diagnostic purpose.
1252 8141 HEPATITIS B VIRUS DNA DETECTOR, ( HBV ) QUALITATIVE REAL TIME PCR SERUM OR PLASMA – EDTA F India HBV PCR has immense diagnostic utility in patients who have inconclusive serology results especially in cases of chronic hepatitis B infection and in HBV carriers.
1253 2461 HEPATITIS B VIRUS EVALUATION (HBCORE TOTAL & IgM, HBsABS, HBsAg) CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C India This test helps to distinguish acute and chronic infection and assesses recovery from or immunity to Hepatitis B.
1254 7474 HEPATITIS B VIRUS GENOTYPING
(HBV GENOTYPING)
PCR-SEQUENCING SERUM, EDTA-PLASMA + CLINICAL HISTORY F India This test is useful for the Qualitative detection & Genotyping of 12 High risk genotypes known to be associated with Cervical cancer & 2 Low risk genotypes of HPV which are linked to Genital warts.
1255 2456 HEPATITIS Be VIRUS ANTIGEN CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C India HBeAg is found in early phase of HBV infection and correlates with infectivity. This assay is useful for the diagnosis and monitoring of HBV infectivity. It also determines infection status in chronically HBV infected patients.
1256 2462 HEPATITIS Be VIRUS ANTIGEN / ANTIBODY EVALUATION CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C India HBeAg is found in early phase of HBV infection and correlates with infectivity. It also determines infection status in chronically HBV infected patients. HBe antibody measurement is useful for recognition of resolution of HBV infection with seroconversion of HBeAg to Anti HBe. This usually indicates loss of infectivity but carrier state may persist.
1257 7516A HEPATITIS C VIRUS (HCV RNA PCR, QUALITATIVE)   REAL TIME POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION SERUM FOR CMIA/ PLASMA-EDTA FOR PCR F India This test is useful in diagnosing HCV infection prior to seroconversion, distinguishing active from resolved infection and diagnosing chronic hepatitis carriers who are HCV antibody negative.
1258 7473 HEPATITIS C VIRUS GENOTYPING
(HCV GENOTYPING)
PCR SEQUENCING PLASMA- EDTA F India HCV genotyping assay determines the Genotypes 1,2,3,4,5 & 6 and their subtypes in positive cases. HCV genotype 1 is more difficult to treat than Genotypes 2 & 3 and causes more severe liver disease. This test should not be used for screening of blood or blood products or as a diagnostic test to confirm the presence of HCV infection.
1259 9891 HEPATITIS C VIRUS RNA QUANTITATIVE
(HCV RNA QUANTITATIVE )
COBAS TAQMAN PLASMA- EDTA F India  Quantitation of HCV RNA level is important as it serves to be a prognostic marker of HCV infection and is used for establishing baseline levels in patients before initiation of the treatment. It is also useful for monitoring the treatment.
1260 7486 HEPATITIS C VIRUS RNA, QUANTITATIVE COBAS TAQMAN PLASMA EDTA F India  Quantitation of HCV RNA level is important as it serves to be a prognostic marker of HCV infection and is used for establishing baseline levels in patients before initiation of the treatment. It is also useful for monitoring the treatment.
1261 2458 HEPATITIS DELTA VIRUS IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (7 days), >7 days- 20 °C India Hepatitis D occurs in patients infected with HBV. Presence of Hepatitis D antibody and HBsAg indicate a coinfection. Patients with Hepatitis D are more likely to develop fulminant hepatitis and chronic hepatitis.
1262 2466G HEPATITIS E VIRUS IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (7 days), >7 days- 20 °C India HEV causes an acute self limiting infection. Anti HEV IgG appears within a few days of infection and remains positive for several years. This assay is used for the diagnosis of past HEV infection.
1263 2466M HEPATITIS E VIRUS IgM ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (7 days), >7 days- 20 °C India HEV causes an acute self limiting infection. Anti HEV IgM appears within a few days of infection and remains positive upto 6 months. This assay is used for the diagnosis of acute or recent HEV infection.
1264 2464 HEPATITIS G VIRUS RNA REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE PCR EDTA PLASMA F India This assay is useful for the detection of Hepatitis G virus in the plasma of the patient.
1265 5011 HEPATITIS SCREENING PANEL (CBC,SGPT, SGOT, TOTAL BILIRUBIN,DIRECT BILIRUBIN,INDIRECT BILIRUBIN,HBsAg,HAV IgM,HEP E IGM.) AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER/SPECTROPHOTOMETRY/ELISA/ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY/CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) EDTA WB + DIRECT SMEARS + SERUM 10-12 HRS FASTING (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) AVOID LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SPECIMEN EDTA WB : ambient
/R/F, SERUM 2-8°C (2 days); F (> 2 days)
India Screening test for hepatitis
1266 Z004K HER-2 / neu ONCOPROTEIN (C-ERB B2) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN FOR 24-48 HRS/ PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING.* TIME AND DURATION OF FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTIONED ON THE TRF.* A India HER2 is an oncogene that is over-expressed in a variety of cancers including some breast carcinomas.
1267 RD1482 Hereditary Cancer Panel-Expanded Next Generation Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This test analyzes following genes which are associated with hereditary cancer predisposition. APC,  ATM, AXIN2, BARD1, BMPR1A, BRIP1, CDC73, CDH1, CDK4, CDKN2A, CDKN2A, CHEK2, EPCAM, MLH1, MRE11A, MSH2, MSH6, MUTYH, NBN,  PALB2, PMS2,  PTEN, RAD50,  RAD51C, RAD51D,  SDHD, SMAD4, STK11, TP53, VHL,  XRCC2. These genes are associated with commonly inherited cancers (Ovarian, Endometrial, Colorectal, Gastrointestinal, Pancreatic and Cutaneous Malignant Melanoma) and cancer related syndromes {(Fanconi anemia,Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome,Cowden Syndrome,PTEN Hamartoma Tumor syndrome(PHTS),Bannayan -Riley – Ruvalcaba syndrome,Proteus syndrome,Autism spectrum disorder with macrocephaly,Von Hippel- Lindau Disease,MUTYH – associated polyposis MAP),HNPCC (Hereditary Non – Polyposis Colorectal Cancer),Lynch syndrome,Muir- Torre syndrome,Turcot syndrome,Li- Fraumeni Syndrome,Juvenile Polyposis Syndrome (JPS),HHT,Ataxiatelangiectasia, Louis-Barr syndrome,Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP),Gardner Syndrome and Attenuated FAP (AFAP)}.
1268 RD1481 Hereditary Cancer Panel-Next Next Generation Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This test analyzes following 32 genes recommended by ACMG(American College of Medical Genetics and Genomics),which are associated with hereditary cancer predisposition. APC,ATM,AXIN2,BRCA1,BRCA2,BARD1,BMPR1A,BRIP1,CDC73,CDH1,CDK4,CDKN2A,CDKN2A, CHEK2,EPCAM,MLH1,MRE11A,MSH2,MSH6,MUTYH,NBN,PALB2,PMS2,PTEN,RAD50,RAD51C,RAD51D,SDHD,SMAD4,STK11,TP53,VHL and XRCC2 These genes are associated with commonly inherited cancers (Breast, Ovarian, Endometrial, Colorectal, Gastrointestinal, Pancreatic and Cutaneous Malignant Melanoma) and cancer related syndromes {(Fanconi anemia,Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome,Cowden Syndrome,PTEN Hamartoma Tumor syndrome(PHTS),Bannayan -Riley – Ruvalcaba syndrome,Proteus syndrome,Autism spectrum disorder with macrocephaly,Von Hippel- Lindau Disease,MUTYH – associated polyposis MAP),HNPCC (Hereditary Non – Polyposis Colorectal Cancer),Lynch syndrome,Muir- Torre syndrome,Turcot syndrome,Li- Fraumeni Syndrome,Juvenile Polyposis Syndrome (JPS),HHT,Ataxiatelangiectasia, Louis-Barr syndrome,Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP),Gardner Syndrome and Attenuated FAP (AFAP)}.
1269 MGEN009 Hereditary Pancreatitis gene Panel 0 0 0 India #N/A
1270 MGEN005 Hereditary Spastic Paraplegia 0 0 0 India #N/A
1271 9454 HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS 1&2 IGG, ABS Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (4 DAYS), >4 DAYS- 20 °C India Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV­1) infections are acquired through direct person to person contact, most typically by a nongenital route. HSV 2 infections are usually acquired through sexual contact. This assay helps in determining recent exposure as well as previous exposure to HSV Types 1 & 2.
1272 7581 HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS DNA DETECTOR  REAL TIME PCR CSF / SERUM/EDTA PLASMA/SWAB A/R India DNA testing is analytically more sensitive specially in patients with Encephalitis, Meningitis and Neonatal infections. Encephalitis is usually due to HSV 1 virus whereas Meningitis is usually due to HSV 2 virus. DNA testing provides reliable means to define the type.
1273 9471P HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS TYPES 1& 2 IgM ANTIBODIES (COMBINED) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (4 DAYS), >4 DAYS- 20 °C India Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV­1) infections are acquired through direct person to person contact, most typically by a nongenital route. Recurrent infections are clinically apparent as fever blisters or cold sores. HSV 2 infections are usually acquired through sexual contact. 85% of genital herpes is caused by Type 2 virus and 15% caused by Type 1 virus. This assay helps in determining recent exposure to HSV Types 1 & 2.
1274 2116 HETEROPHILE ANTIBODIES (HA) (INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS) LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (2 DAYS) ,>2 DAYS -20°C India This is a qualitative test for heterophile antibodies to Infectious Mononucleosis. Heterophilic antibodies are associated almost exclusively with Infectious Mononucleosis and EB Virus associated neoplasms. Usually these antibodies develop 3 weeks after infection, but some patients may take as long as 3 months to develop the antibodies.
1275 RD1459 HFE gene mutations PCR Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD AMBIENT India Clinical HFE­HH is characterized by excessive storage of iron in the liver, skin, pancreas, feet, joints, and testes. This test identifies common mutations such as C282Y, H63D and S65C.
1276 1010 HIRSUTISM EVALUATION PANEL (DHEA, Testosterone (Total and Free), LH, FSH,
Sex Hormone Binding Globulin,
17 Hydroxyprogesterone)
RADIOIMMUNOASSAY/CHEMILUMINECENCE SERUM (AGE+GENDER TO BE MENTIONED+CLINICAL HISTORY 2-8°C (24 HRS); F (>24 HRS) India Hirsutism is defined as excessive growth of terminal hair in women and children in a distribution similar to that in post pubertal men.  True hirsutism which is androgen responsive has to be distinguished from hypertrichosis. Causes can be ovarian, adrenal, endocrine, iatrogenic, familial & idiopathic.
1277 1009 HIRSUTISM SCREENING PANEL (DHEA, Testosterone (Total and Free) RADIOIMMUNOASSAY/CHEMILUMINECENCE SERUM (Age+Gender to be mentioned+CLINICAL HISTORY) 2-8°C (24 hrs); F ( >24 hrs) India Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a useful marker of adrenal androgen synthesis. Levels of DHEA may be elevated in conditions such as virilizing adrenal adenoma & carcinoma, 21-hydroxylase & 3 beta-hydroxycorticosteroid dehydrogenase deficiencies and in some cases of hirsutism.
Testosterone measurements are used mainly for clinical evaluation of hypogonadism in males and hyperandrogenic states in females.
1278 8182 HISTAMINE ELISA EDTA PLASMA FROZEN India To help confirm a diagnosis of anaphylaxis, mastocytosis, or mast cell activation
1279 9237RFX HISTOPATH REFLEX TO CUSTOM IHC- BONE BIOPSY IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE in 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN (SMALL TISSUE)  + SITE OF BIOPSY &CLINICAL DETAILS A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation of bone biopsy including IHC when warranted.
1280 9244RFX HISTOPATH REFLEX TO CUSTOM IHC PANEL – OTHERS IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN (SMALL TISSUE)  + SITE OF BIOPSY &CLINICAL DETAILS A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation of tissue specimen including IHC when warranted.
1281 9239RFX HISTOPATH REFLEX TO CUSTOM IHC PANEL – PROSTATE IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE in 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN (SMALL TISSUE)  + SITE OF BIOPSY &CLINICAL DETAILS A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation of prostate biopsy including IHC when warranted.
1282 9241RFX HISTOPATH REFLEX TO CUSTOM IHC PANEL -BONE MARROW IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN (SMALL TISSUE)  + SITE OF BIOPSY &CLINICAL DETAILS A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation of bone marrow including IHC when warranted.
1283 Z009KM HISTOPATHOLOGY & IHC; COMPLETE DISGNOSIS WITH SPECIAL STAINS & IHC (AS AND WHEN NEEDED) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY  PARAFFIN BLOCKS (PLEASE LET US KNOW THE SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS) A India #N/A
1284 7197 HISTOPATHOLOGY REVIEW BY DR.ANJALI AMRAPURKAR Histopathology Clinical details, site of the tissue, pathology reports along with the specimen will be required. If it is a bone marrow specimen, CBC report will also be required and for bone specimen, will also require MRI & X-Ray of the patient. If the paraffin blocks of the tissue are to be returned back to the client along with the report, a request letter from the referring doctor will be required along with the specimen.Mention the site of biopsy on TRP Ambient India HISTOPATHOLOGY REVIEW BY DR.ANJALI AMRAPURKAR
1285 DT4202 HIV MONITOR (Viral Load, CD4 / CD8) Abbott m2000 , FLOW CYTOMETRY PLASMA- EDTA (F); WB-EDTA, WB-HEPARIN(WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) F/A India This test is intended for use as an aid in the management of HIV 1 infected patients and is not intended for use in the initial diagnosis or confirmation of HIV 1 infection. This panel is used to assess patient prognosis and monitor the effect of anti­retroviral therapy.
1286 DT4204 HIV ROCHE COBAS MONITOR (Viral Load, CD4 / CD8) COBAS TAQMAN, FLOW CYTOMETRY PLASMA- EDTA (F); WB-EDTA, WB-HEPARIN (WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) F-HIV-1 VIRAL LOAD; CD4/CD8: EDTA A 48 HRS; HEPARIN A 96 HRS India Viral Load – to determine the status of the infection and subsequently to monitor the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment. CD4 / CD8- this test is done to measure the strength of your immune system if you have been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and to monitor the effectiveness of treatment
1287 9885B HIV-1 DNA DETECTOR,QUALITATIVE POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION WB-EDTA/ACD A/R India This test is intended for use as an aid in the management of HIV 1 infected patients and is not intended for use in the initial diagnosis or confirmation of HIV 1 infection. This test is used to assess patient prognosis and monitor the effect of anti­retroviral therapy.
1288 9939 HIV-1 GENOTYPIC RESISTANCE PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA-PLASMA + CLINICAL HISTORY F India The high replication rate of HIV 1 coupled with its rapid mutation rate leads to accumulation of mutations, some of which reduce susceptibility to antiretroviral agents. HIV 1 Genotyping identifies mutations in HIV 1 Reverse Transcriptase & Protease genes. Genotyping helps in identifying the mutations associated with resistance and guiding initiation or change of Anti HIV 1 treatment regimens.
1289 DT4206 HIV-1 REAL TIME MONITOR Abbott m2000 , FLOW CYTOMETRY PLASMA EDTA (F) / *WB- EDTA / HEPARIN (* SAMPLE TO REACH LAB WITHIN 48 HRS) F+A+A India The viral load provides an accurate estimate of the level of HIV replication  Quantitation of HIV Viral load is important as it serves to be a prognostic marker of HIV infection and is used for establishing baseline levels in patients before initiation of the therapy and for monitoring the disease progression.
1290 9885 HIV-1 VIRAL Load Abbott m2000 PLASMA- EDTA F India 1.The viral load provides an accurate estimate of the level of HIV replication .
2.Quantitation of HIV Viral load is important as it serves to be a prognostic marker of HIV infection .
3.It is used for establishing baseline levels in patients before initiation of the therapy and for monitoring the disease progression
4.A sudden rise in the viral load may indicate emergence of resistant strains during the therapy.
1291 9974 HIV-1 VIRAL LOAD BY REAL TIME PCR PCR PLASMA- EDTA F India This test is intended for use as an aid in the management of HIV 1 infected patients and is not intended for use in the initial diagnosis or confirmation of HIV 1 infection. This test is used to assess patient prognosis and monitor the effect of anti­retroviral therapy.
1292 7101PDK HIV-1-RNA DETECTION (QUALITATIVE) Real Time PCR EDTA PLASMA FROZEN India Qualitative Assay for the
detection of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-1) in human plasma. It is intended for use as
an aid in the diagnosis of HIV-1 infection, including acute or primary infection. Presence of
HIV-1 RNA in the plasma of patients without antibodies to HIV-1 is indicative of acute or
primary HIV-1 infection.
1293 9917B HLA – A  FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations.
1294 4851B HLA – A B C DR  FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1295 4852B HLA – A B C DR DQ FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations;
1296 6150B HLA – A B DR DUO (PATIENT + DONOR) FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR Recipient EDTA-Whole Blood, Donor EDTA-Whole Blood R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1297 9911B HLA – B  FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1298 9913B HLA – C  FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1299 9914B HLA – DQ  FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1300 4858B HLA – DR DQ FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1301 9915B HLA – DR FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1302 1349G HLA (A,B,C) SEROLOGY SODIUM HEPARIN WB (SAMPLE IS TO BE COLLECTED AT LEAST AFTER 3 DAYS OF LAST DIALYSIS.  CROSS MATCH SAMPLE IS TO BE COLLECTED AFTER THREE WEEKS OF LAST BLOOD TRANSFUSION.   MANDATORY DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF,  PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) . APPLICABLE FOR SOLID ORGAN TRANSPLANT ONLY(LIVER & KIDNEY) COLD PACK India HLA (Human Leucocyte Antigen) are hereditary immunogenetic markers employed for detecting compatibility between the two, the patient and donor for transplantation. HLA Class I antigen has A, B and C loci expressed numerically that reflect the hereditary aspect.
1303 1706G HLA (DR/DQ) SEROLOGY SODIUM HEPARIN WB (SAMPLE IS TO BE COLLECTED AT LEAST AFTER 3 DAYS OF LAST DIALYSIS.  CROSS MATCH SAMPLE IS TO BE COLLECTED AFTER THREE WEEKS OF LAST BLOOD TRANSFUSION.   MANDATORY DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF,  PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) APPLICABLE FOR SOLID ORGAN TRANSPLANT ONLY (LIVER & KIDNEY) COLD PACK India HLA (Human Leucocyte Antigen) are hereditary immunogenetic markers employed for detecting compatibility between the two, the patient and donor for transplantation. HLA Class II antigen has DR and DQ loci expressed numerically that reflect the immunological reaction. It is an important parameter and its matching is essential.
1304 4848 HLA A B C DR DQ DP LOCI PCR -SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1305 4848B HLA A B C DR DQ DP LOCI PCR -SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1306 4852 HLA A B C DR DQ LOCI PCR -SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1307 4851 HLA A B C DR LOCI PCR -SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1308 9971B HLA –A B DR FOR HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1309 9971GLB HLA –A B DR FOR HSCT Luminex Recipient EDTA-Whole Blood, Donor EDTA-Whole Blood R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1310 6150 HLA A B DR LOCI DUO (Patient + Donor) PCR -SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1311 9917 HLA A LOCUS PCR-SSO WB-EDTA+ MANDATORY DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF,  PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1312 9911 HLA B LOCUS PCR-SSO WB-EDTA+ MANDATORY DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF,  PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1313 4572 HLA B*5701 GENOTYPING ABACAVIR HYPERSENSITIVITY, B PCR SEQUENCING EDTA Whole Blood. Specimen should reach SRL,Mumbai within 24hrs of collection by Monday 09:00hrs and Wednesday 09:00hrs. REFRIGERATED(Specimen stability: 5 days ) India Presence of HLAB*57:01 is associated with hypersensitivity to Abacavir, a highly effective drug used to treat HIV infection and AIDS. Hypersensitivity reactions usually occur during the first 6 weeks of treatment and include skin rashes, gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Fatalities have also been reported with Abacavir. This allele is also associated with 80 fold increased risk of liver injury when treated with Flucloxacillin. Although the negative predictive value of the test is high,  a negative result does not preclude the development of an allergic response to Abacavir and cannot substitute for clinical vigilance whenever Abacavir is administered.
1314 1350 HLA B27 (FLOWCYTOMETRY) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA + HEPARIN (WB TO REACH WITHIN 72 HRS) A India HLA B 27 positivity is associated with Ankylosing spondylosis and other diseases like Reiter’s syndrome, Anterior uveitis, Salmonella/Yersini a/ Psoriatic/ Juvenile Chronic Arthritis, Spondylitis with Inflammatory Bowel Disease.
1315 1348 HLA B27 (PCR) POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION WB-EDTA A India Approximately 8% of the normal population carries the HLA B27 antigen. It is present in Ankylosing spondylitis (89%), Reiter’s syndrome (79%) & Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis (42%).
1316 9913 HLA C LOCUS PCR-SSO WB-EDTA+ MANDATORY DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF,  PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1317 4849B HLA -DP & DQ for HSCT HistoSpot SSO-PCR EDTA-Whole Blood (Recipient or Donor) R India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1318 4849 HLA DP & DQ LOCUS PCR -SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1319 4857DP HLA –DP LOCUS TYPING PCR -SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1320 4858 HLA -DQ & DR LOCI TYPING PCR -SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1321 9914 HLA DQ LOCUS PCR-SSO WB-EDTA+ MANDATORY DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF,  PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1322 9920 HLA DQ Typing PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1323 9915 HLA DR LOCUS PCR-SSO WB-EDTA+ MANDATORY DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF,  PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1324 1309 HLA typing Combo Serology & PCR 20ml Whole blood (heparin) and 10ml Whole Blood (EDTA) + SRL TRF of patient + HLA request form for HLA Typing  Photo ID Proof of patient/donor (all mandatory) Sample to be sent in Cool packs India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1325 9971GL HLA-A B DR LOCI LUMINEX EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . Mandatory Documents to be enclosed with the sample are:- Completely filled in HLA TRF, Additional TRF, Photo I.D.Proofs of patient & donor ,doctor’s prescription.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1326 9971 HLA-A B DR LOCI PCR-SSO EDTA WHOLE BLOOD . MANDATORY DOCUMENTS TO BE ENCLOSED WITH THE SAMPLE ARE:- COMPLETELY FILLED IN HLA TRF, ADDITIONAL TRF,  PHOTO I.D.PROOFS OF PATIENT & DONOR ,DOCTOR’S PRESCRIPTION.) A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1327 8215 HLA-A,B,C,DRB1,DQ1  HR-Loci Typing NGS  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD /BUCCAL SWAB A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1328 8217 HLA-A,B,C,DRB1,DQ1,DPB1 HR-Loci Typing NGS  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD /BUCCAL SWAB A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1329 8216 HLA-A,B,DRB1 HR-Loci Typing NGS  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD /BUCCAL SWAB A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1330 1675BO HLA-DR-PERCENT FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | BM / FLUIDS- EDTA/HEPARIN /SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Detection of many subtypes or “splits” of HLA antigens or alleles.
It can routinely define antigens at the allele level, assuring no ambiguity in interpretations
1331 Z062K HMB-45 (MELANOMA MARKER) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India HMB45 recognizes a melanoma-specific antigen by reacting with melanoma cells, nevus cells and neonatal melanocytes. HMB45 is expressed on the majority of malignant melanoma cases as well as on tumors of melanocytic differentiation.
1332 7561 HOMA SPECTROPHOTOMETRY/ CHEMILUMINESCENCE FASTING FLUORIDE PLASMA WITH FASTING SERUM  SIMULTANEOUSLY OF SAME DAY COLLECTION. (AGE & GENDER OF THE PATIENT IS MANDATORY FOR REPORTING) FLUORIDE PLASMA 2-8°C (3 DAYS) AND SERUM FROZEN ONLY India This assay is used to assess risk of developing diabetes  and response to treatment with oral hypoglycemic agents.
1333 9203RFX HOMOCYSTEINE REFLEX VIT B12 AND FOLIC ACID (If Homocysteine value is high perform VIT B12 AND FOLIC ACD) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM / PLASMA-EDTA – SEPARATE SAMPLE IMMEDIATELY AFTER COLLECTION. FASTING 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India To help determine if you are deficient in vitamins B6, B9 (folate) or B12; to determine if you are at increased risk of heart attack or stroke; to monitor those who have heart disease; sometimes to help diagnose a rare inherited disorder called homocystinuria in newborns. IN CASE OF HIGH HOMOCYSTEINE, SERUM VIT B12 AND FOLIC ACID WILL BE PROCESSED AND INNORMAL LEVELS BOTH THE ELEMENTS WILL BE CANCELLED DURING REVIEW OF THE FINAL RESULT.
1334 3344U HOMOCYSTEINE, URINE QUALITATIVE URINE, RANDOM + CLINICAL HISTORY MANDATORY FROZEN India Increased homocysteine urine levels may indicate:
Vitamin Bdeficiency
Chronic kidney failure
Homocystinuria (a genetic disorder)
Coronary artery disease (CAD)
1335 0017LS HOMOGENTISIC ACID, URINE QUALITATIVE URINE, RANDOM. CLINICAL DETAILS OF THE PATIENT IS MANDATORY. FROZEN India It is characterised by urine that slowly darkens  on standing due to deficiency leading to accumulation of Homogentisic Acid.
1336 1820 HPV DNA DETECTOR POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION GENITAL SWABS / LBC SAMPLE/ FORMALIN FIXED TISSUE PARAFFIN BLOCKS / CERVICAL/ ORAL SCRAPINGS ON SLIDES -AIR DRIED + CLINICAL HISTORY (AGE & SEX) A India This is a rapid in-vitro qualitative PCR assay for detecting genital infections caused by HPV. Human Papilloma virus subtypes – 6, 11, 42, 43 & 44 are regarded as low risk whereas HPV types 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59 and 68 are regarded as intermediate to high-risk types for development of Cervical carcinoma. This test serves as an adjunct to the PAP smear in the identification of women who may be at increased risk for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. Useful for detecting HPV in oral scrap/biopsy where PAP test is not applicable. Confirming presence of HPV when PAP test indicates abnormal cellular morphology.
1337 1821 HPV DNA Detector & PAP Smear  POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION / CYTOLOGY FIXED UNSTAINED SMEARS (FOR PAP)
AND
GENITAL SWABS / CERVICAL SCRAPINGS ON SLIDES  (FOR HPV-PCR)
+
SITE OF COLLECTION
CLINICAL HISTORY & AGE & SEX
A India This test is used for the Screening, Qualitative detection and Genotyping of 12 high risk genotypes known to be associated with Cervical cancer and 2 low risk genotypes which are linked to Genital warts.
1338 1819 HPV TYPING BY SEQUENCING PCR-SEQUENCING LBC SAMPLES/ CERVICAL SWABS / CERVICAL SCRAPINGS / CERVICAL BIOPSY IN STERILE VIAL / PARAFFIN BLOCK + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This test is useful for the Qualitative detection & Genotyping of 12 High risk genotypes known to be associated with Cervical cancer & 2 Low risk genotypes of HPV which are linked to Genital warts.
1339 1823 HPV: HYBRID CAPTURE 2 HIGH RISK HPV DNA TEST Diagen DNA Hybrid Capture LBC/THINPREP, SUREPATH, DIGENE CERVICAL SAMPLER A India The link between Human Papillomavirus (HPV) and cervical cancer is now clearly established. The sensitivity for high-risk HPV DNA testing using Hybrid Capture® 2 (HC2) [US FDA & CE-approved] is proven to be significantly higher than any Pap test (cytology) or visual Inspection with acetic acid (VIA) for detection of LSIL and HSIL. HPV DNA testing, in general, determines a patient’s clinical risk for progression to cervical disease or cancer.
A negative test result means negligible risk of detecting cervical disease with a 99.7% certainty in the next few years.  A positive test result, conversely, indicates the presence of high-risk oncogenic HPV types (16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39,   45, 51,    52,   56, 58,   59 &   68). Individual HPV types are not reported in this test and can be obtained from a HPV genotyping. A higher cut-off value could indicate presence of a large lesion and severity of disease which can also be confirmed by colposcopy or directed biopsy. Surgical intervention following a positive test result may be taken in conjunction with clinical symptoms, visual examination and histological findings.
The HC2 HPV DNA Test can also be used as a post-treatment monitor for patients who undergo ablative therapy by laser, diathermy, or cold knife biopsy, along with clinical symptoms, visual examination and histological findings.
1340 7781 HTLV I & II ANTIBODIES Chemiluminescent Microparticle Immunoassay (CMIA) SERUM 2-8º C (3 DAYS),       >3 DAYS- 20 °C India HTLV­I is associated with adult T­cell Lymphoblastic leukemia and B­cell Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia. HTLV­II is less common and is associated with neoplasias of the CD8 T lymphocytes. HTLV Confirmatory Assay should be interpreted in conjunction with the HTLV Screening Immunoassay.
1341 9979 h-tTG/DGP Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs);       -20°C (>48 hrs) India hTTG­DGP Screen  is  a sensitive  and specific screening test for Celiac disease.  This  test performs simultaneous detection  of  both IgA  &  IgG antibodies to  a selectively deamidated synthetic peptide (DGP)  and human  TTG. Even with co­existent IgA deficiency, Celiac
1342 RD1409 HUNTINGTON DISEASE MOLECULAR ANALYSIS PCR / Fragment Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + clinical history AMBIENT India Huntington’s disease  is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects muscle coordination and leads to mental decline and behavioral symptoms. Less than 26 repeats of nucleotide CAG is normal, 40 or more leads to symptoms while in between 26­40 repeats is intermediate
1343 7831 HYPERSENSITIVITY PNEUMONITIS PANEL ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);       -20°C (>1 week) India To detect IgG antibodies to following species:
ALTERNARIA ALTERNATE
CLADOSPORIUM HERBARUM                                                                                                PENICILLIUM CHRYSOGENUM
PIGEON SERUM PROTEIN, FEATHER & DROPPINGS
ASPERGILLUS. FUMIGATUS
MUCOR RACEMOSUS
1344 1020 IBD SCREENING PANEL (ASCA IgA, ASCA IgG, ANCA) FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY(FEIA) / IMMUNOFLOROSCENCE SERUM A/R AND STRICTLY FROZEN FOR ASCA IgG & IgA required India Antibodies to Saccharomyces cerevisiae are found in approximately 75% patients with Crohn’s disease, 15% patients with Ulcerative colitis and 5% of healthy population. This assay helps in distinguishing between Ulcerative colitis & Crohn’s disease in patients suspected of inflammatory bowel disease.
1345 Z414K IDH1 (H09) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India #N/A
1346 RD1475 IDH1 AND IDH2 GENE MUTATIONS PYROSEQUENCING TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India This test aids in assessing prognosis in glioma (all grades); differential diagnosis of glioma and other neoplastic or reactive lesions in brain tissue.
1347 1506D IgA NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (> 8 DAYS-90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India IgA constitutes 15% of gamma globulins in normal serum. Decreased levels are seen in patients with Congenital deficiencies. Monoclonal elevation of IgA is seen in Multiple myeloma & Primary Systemic Amyloidosis. This assay is useful for detection and monitoring of Monoclonal gammopathies and Primary or Secondary Immune deficiencies.
1348 1523P IgA ON TISSUE – PHOTO IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India IgA DIRECT IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE ASSAY of provided block/ Tissue and enclosed photo of the same.
1349 1523 IgA, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India IgA IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE of tissue. Immunofluorescence (IF) is a technique used in the laboratory to diagnose diseases of the skin, kidney, and other organ systems.
1350 1045 IgA, IgM & IgG IMMUNOGLOBULIN, QUANTITATIVE NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (> 8 DAYS-90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Elevations of IgG, IgA & IgM are due to polyclonal immunoglobulin production. Low levels are seen in patients with Congenital deficiencies. This assay is useful for the  detection and monitoring of Monoclonal gammopathies & Immune deficiencies.
1351 1675BI IgD HEAVY CHAIN (SURFACE) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN / BM/ EDTA FLUID /HEPARIN FLUID /SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India IgD molecular weight 185 kD is one of the 5 classes of human immunoglobulins. IgD accounts for less than 1% of the total plasma immunoglobulins. Very high serum IgD concentrations are found in the Multiple myeloma patients. Raised levels are also found in the Hyper­immunoglo bulinemia IgD syndrome (HIDS).
1352 3960 IGF BINDING PROTEIN-3 CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM (AGE AND GENDER MANDATORY) 2-8°C (24 HRS) ; F (3 Months) India Low IGFBP­3 levels are observed in Growth hormone (GH) deficiency / resistance. Elevated levels indicate a sustained overproduction of GH or excessive recombinant human Growth hormone (rhGH) injections. This assay is useful for diagnosing growth disorders and adult GH deficiency. It is also used to monitor rhGH treatment. This test can also be used as an adjunct to IGF­1 & GH in the diagnosis and followup of Acromegaly & Gigantism
1353 1505D IgG NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (> 8 DAYS-90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India IgG constitutes 80% of total immunoglobulins in serum. Elevation is seen in polyclonal immunoglobulin production whereas monoclonal elevation characterises Multiple myeloma. This assay is useful for the detection and monitoring of Monoclonal gammopathies & Immune deficiencies.
1354 1675BE IgG HEAVY CHAIN (SURFACE) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | BM / EDTA / HEP FLUIDS/SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Clonal restriction / B cell maturity marker
1355 1522P IgG ON TISSUE – PHOTO IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA (IFA) +  CLINICAL HISTORY A India IgG DIRECT IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE ASSAY of provided block/ Tissue and enclosed photo of the same.
1356 2441 IgG, CSF NEPHELOMETRY CSF+CLINICAL HISTORY (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) FROZEN SPECIMEN IS NOT ACCEPTABLE 2-8°C (8 DAYS) India Concentration of CSF IgG is increased in various infections, inflammatory conditions, neoplastic diseases and active Multiple sclerosis.
1357 1522 IgG, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India IgG IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE of tissue. Immunofluorescence (IF) is a technique used in the laboratory to diagnose diseases of the skin, kidney, and other organ systems.
1358 7923 IGG1 FITC, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India used for the identification of the IgGG1
1359 7924 IGG2 FITC, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India used for the identification of the IgGG2
1360 7925 IGG3 FITC, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India used for the identification of the IgGG3
1361 9548C IGG4 NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (>8 -30 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Patients with recurrent infections by encapsulated bacteria often show decreased levels of IgG2 and IgG4. Recurrent respiratory infections with bronchiectasis are often associated with decreased levels of IgG2, IgG3 and IgG4.
Elevated IgG4 concentrations often occur in sera from patients with atopic eczema and dermatitis, probably as the result of prolonged antigenic stimulation.
In secondary immunodeficiencies such as HIV infection (Stage III & IV) IgG2 and IgG4 levels are often decreased while levels of IgG1 and IgG3 are increased.
IgG4 deficiency is often seen in healthy individuals.  Slightly lowered concentrations of one or more IgG subclass proteins are not uncommon, and are usually clinically not relevant.
1362 Z281K IGG4 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Aids in the identification of IgG4-positive plasma cells in the tissue of patients with systemic autoimmune or allergic manifestations
1363 7926 IGG4 FITC, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India used for the identification of the IgGG4
1364 1508D IgM NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (> 8 DAYS-90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Measurement of immunoglobulin M is useful in the diagnosis of hereditary and acquired IgM immunodeficiencies. Total IgM evaluates humoral immunity; establishes the diagnosis and monitors therapy in macroglobulinemia of Waldenstrom and Plasma cell myeloma. IgM levels are used to evaluate likelihood of in utero infections or acuteness of infections.
1365 1675BG IgM HEAVY CHAIN  (SURFACE) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA | BM  / WB- HEPARIN | BM / FLUIDS/SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Clonal restrictionv/ B cell maturity marker
1366 1524P IgM ON TISSUE – PHOTO IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India IgM  DIRECT IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE ASSAY of provided block/Tissue and enclosed photo of the same.
1367 1524 IgM, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India IgM IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE of tissue. Immunofluorescence (IF) is a technique used in the laboratory to diagnose diseases of the skin, kidney, and other organ systems.
1368 RD1428 IgVH GENE MUTATION DNA sequencing BONE MARROW EDTA/WB EDTA) A India This assay is useful to provide an estimate of prognosis (aggressiveness of disease) of B­cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B­CLL) and to help evaluate treatment options. B­CLL with mutated IgVH is typically less aggressive (more slowly progressive) than B­CLL with unmutated IgVH.
1369 P0003 IHC (PHOTO), TISSUE / PARAFFIN BLOCK IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE FIXED IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK A India IHC of provided block and enclosed photo of the same
1370 5044 IHC without interpretation -one marker Immunohistochemistry Paraffin block A India #N/A
1371 RD1436 IL28B Genotyping PCR Sequencing WB EDTA/EDTA PLASMA Ambient/FROZEN India IL28B genotype has the strongest predictive value among host factors associated with sustained virologic response. A single nucleotide polymorphism (rs12979860) is strongly associated with a Sustained Virologic Response in HCV genotype 1 infections and to a lesser extent with HCV genotypes 2 & 3.
1372 9949 IL-6 (INTERLUEKIN-6) ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM  FROZEN -20°C India IL­6 is a protein cytokine that serves as a messenger which activates the immune system against foreign invasion and may help the body against the spread of cancer.
1373 1527P IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY (IgG + IgA + IgM + C-3 + C1q + FIBRINOGEN ON TISSUE )- PHOTO IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Histopathological diagnosis of specimen including immunofluroscent assay ( IGG, IGA, IGM, C3,c1q and fIbrinogen on tissue )
1374 1527 IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY (IgG + IgA + IgM + C-3 + C1q + FIBRINOGEN ON TISSUE) IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Histopathological diagnosis of specimen including immunofluroscent assay ( IGG, IGA, IGM, C3,c1q and fIbrinogen on tissue )
1375 3125 IMMUNOFIXATION ELECTROPHORESIS IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS SERUM (CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY ) AVOID LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SPECIMEN 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F ( 7 – 30 DAYS) India This assay is useful for diagnosing & monitoring patients with Monoclonal gammopathies. Protein electrophoresis alone is not considered an adequate screening test for Monoclonal gammopathies.
1376 3125C IMMUNOFIXATION ELECTROPHORESIS, CSF IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS CSF + CLINICAL HISTORY 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F ( 7 – 30 DAYS) India To help diagnose or monitor conditions that result in abnormal protein production or loss of protein
1377 3125U IMMUNOFIXATION ELECTROPHORESIS, URINE IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS URINE -24 HOURS WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE &  REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION) + MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY DETAILS. 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F ( 7 – 30 DAYS) India This assay is useful for diagnosing & monitoring patients with Monoclonal gammopathies. Protein electrophoresis alone is not considered an adequate screening test for Monoclonal gammopathies.
1378 3307 IMMUNOREACTIVE TRYPSINOGEN (NEONATAL SCREENING) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India This test is intended as a screening method for the measurement of IRT (IMMUNOREACTIVE TRYPSINOGEN ) concentration in newborn blood spot specimens as an aid in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.
1379 9609I INFLUENZA VIRUS A IgG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS), >5 DAYS- 20 °C India qualitative measurement of IgG class antibodies against Influenza virus A
1380 9610I INFLUENZA VIRUS A IgM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS), >5 DAYS- 20 °C India qualitative measurement of IgM class antibodies against Influenza virus A
1381 9605I INFLUENZA VIRUS B IgG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS), >5 DAYS- 20 °C India qualitative measurement of IgG class antibodies against Influenza virus B
1382 9607I INFLUENZA VIRUS B IgM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8º C (5 DAYS), >5 DAYS- 20 °C India qualitative measurement of IgM class antibodies against Influenza virus B
1383 Z0149K INHIBIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Inhibin is useful in the diagnosis of Sex cord stromal tumors of ovary and testis. Anti-Inhibin alpha is an antibody against a peptide hormone which has a demonstrated utility in differentiating between adrenocortical tumors and renal cell carcinoma. This antibody stains most adrenal tumors but no cases of renal cell carcinomas (RCC). Sex cord stromal tumors of the ovary, as well as trophoblastic tumors, also demonstrate cytoplasmic positivity with this antibody.
1384 3983 INHIBIN A (DIMERIC) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY 2-8°C (48 HRS); F (>48 HRS) India Inhibin A is produced in the placenta and is used with other maternal serum biochemical markers to improve the sensitivity of the screen for Down Syndrome.
1385 3339 INHIBIN B ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2-8°C (24 HRS),>24 HRS -20°C India Inhibin B levels are used to assess ovarian reserve and as an aid in the diagnosis & monitoring of Granulosa cell tumors and Mucinous epithelial ovarian tumors.
1386 1013 INHIBIN B, LH, FSH & Prolactin ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY/
CHEMILUMINESCENCE
SERUM (Age+Gender to be mentioned+CLINICAL HISTORY) 2-8°C < 24 HRS) ; F ( > 24 HRS ) India Fertility panel
1387 3194 INSULIN LIKE GROWTH FACTOR-1 (IGF-1) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM 2-8°C (24 HRS); F (3 Months) India   Low IGF­1 levels are observed in Growth hormone (GH) deficiency / resistance. Elevated levels indicate a sustained overproduction of GH or excessive recombinant human Growth hormone (rhGH) injections. This assay is useful for diagnosing growth disorders and adult GH deficiency. It is also used to monitor rhGH treatment. This test is also used for diagnosis and followup of Acromegaly & Gigantism.
1388 1876 International Digital Pathology Opinion (HARTFORD) Digital Pathology Tissue/Paraffin Block (Site of Biopsy & Clinical details) A India #N/A
1389 9919I INTRINSIC FACTOR IgG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C ( < 48 hrs) ; F ( > 48 hrs ) India Intrinsic Factor, produced by cells lining the stomach, binds vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) to facilitate absorption of the vitamin. This antibody impedes the action of Intrinsic Factor as observed in approximately half of the patients who develop Pernicious anemia.
1390 RD1310 JAK2 EXON 12 MUTATION PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India JAK2 exon 12 test detects mutations in entire exon 12 of JAK2 by DNA Sequencing. JAK2 exon 12 testing is recommended in patients with a clinical picture suggestive of polycythemia vera (PV) and who were found to be negative for the JAK2 V617F mutation and in some patients with idiopathic erythrocytosis.
1391 8386 JAK2 V617F MUTATION DETECTION REAL TIME PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India JAK2 gene mutations are important diagnostic markers for the    Myeloproliferative disorder Polycythemia vera (PV). A single mutation (V617F) is found in approximately 95% of cases. Of the PV cases that are V617F­negative (approximately 5%), most are associated with mutations in a different region of the JAK2 gene within exon 12. Patients with exon 12 mutations present frequently with erythrocytosis as the predominant feature, but without concurrent elevations in the megakaryocytic or granulocytic lineages as seen in V617F­positive PV. Consequently, many exon 12 positive cases are considered clinically as Idiopathic erythrocytosis. Unlike the V617F mutation that is found in several Myeloproliferative neoplasms (PV, Essential thrombocythemia & Primary myelofibrosis), JAK2 exon 12 mutations are restricted only to cases of PV. WHO (2016) diagnostic algorithm for suspected PV now recommends JAK2 exon 12 mutation screening in patients who present with a suspicion for PV that is V617F negative.
1392 RD1420 JAPANESE ENCEPHALITIS VIRUS- RT-PCR RT-PCR- Sequencing CSF F India The assay detects  presence of JEV in clinical specimen by RT-PCR-Sequencing. JEV detection in CSF confirms infection of the central nervous system with JEV.
1393 RD1471 JC VIRUS (QUANTITATIVE) Real time PCR CSF/SERUM/EDTA PLASMA/URINE FROZEN India PCR to detect and quantitate BKV DNA in plasma has been considered as a non-invasive way to identify patients at risk for BK nephropathy and to monitor response to therapy. BKV viral load can be tested in renal transplant patients to assess risk for BKV nephropathy.  I
1394 9937 JC/BK DNA PCR (QUALITATIVE) POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION EDTA PLASMA,/CSF/ URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY SERUM/ PLASMA – FROZEN, CSF – REFRIGERATED; OTHERS AMBIENT India This assay is useful for the detection of JC and BK virus which are associated with transplants
1395 1208 JO-1 IgG ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India Jo­1 antibodies are a marker of Polymyositis & occur most commonly in Myositis patients who also have Interstitial lung disease. The antibodies are detected in 50% patients with Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis & Symmetrical polyarthritis
1396 9074 KALA-AZAR IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS),>3 DAYS -20 °C India To help diagnose Kalazar
1397 7921 KAPPA FITC, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India To help detect, diagnose, and monitor plasma cell disorders (dyscrasias) such as multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, and related diseases or to monitor the effectiveness of treatment
1398 1661 KAPPA FREE LIGHT CHAIN NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (21 DAYS) India This assay in combination with serum protein electrophoresis and immunofixation electrophoresis yields high sensitivity (99%) for the diagnosis of Plasma cell disorders (PCD). Baseline measurement  is of major prognostic value and allows quantitative monitoring of patients with oligosecretory PCD.
1399 Z031K KAPPA LIGHT CHAIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India To help detect, diagnose, and monitor plasma cell disorders (dyscrasias) such as multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, and related diseases or to monitor the effectiveness of treatment
1400 1661U24 KAPPA LIGHT CHAIN QUANTITATIVE, 24 hrs. URINE NEPHELOMETRY 24 HRS URINE SAMPLES WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION+ CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY (MENTION 24 HRS URINE VOLUME) 2-8°C (7 DAYS) India To help detect, diagnose, and monitor plasma cell disorders (dyscrasias) such as multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, and related diseases or to monitor the effectiveness of treatment in urine
1401 1661U KAPPA LIGHT CHAIN QUANTITATIVE, URINE RANDOM NEPHELOMETRY RANDOM URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY 2-8°C (7 DAYS) India Presence of Immunoglobulin Light Chains, Kappa & Lambda on the cell surface is characteristic of clonal proliferation most often seen in Multiple Myeloma and Lymphoproliferativ e diseases.
1402 9245RFX Karyotyping Reflex to BCR-ABL (FISH).                        CML and BCR/ABL suspected ALL cases CELL CULTURE/FISH BONE MARROW/WB WB (≥70% blast cell) SODIUM HEPARIN  SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT, BLOOD PICTURE(CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF IN SPECIMEN COLUMN A India To help diagnose and monitor the treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) and a type of B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
1403 Z006K KI-67  (Proliferating Cells) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India A marker of proliferation in neoplasms
1404 1761G KIDNEY BIOPSY NATIVE IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY / HP TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA (IFA) + 10% NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN FIXED TISSUE (HP) + CLINICAL DETAILS & RENAL FUNCTION TEST WITH 24 HOURS URINARY PROTEIN VALUE & URIN REPORT. A India Histopathological diagnosis of specimen including immunofluroscent assay and
1405 1762G KIDNEY BIOPSY TRANSPLANT IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY / HP TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA (IFA) + 10% NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN FIXED TISSUE (HP) + CLINICAL DETAILS & RENAL FUNCTION TEST WITH 24 HOURS URINARY PROTEIN VALUE & URIN REPORT. A India Histopathological diagnosis of specimen including immunofluroscent assay and Immunhistochemistry
1406 4162 Kidney stone analysis by FTIR  (TEST IS DONE IN GURGAON LAB) FTIR STONE AMBIENT India To determine exact composition of a kidney stone which is useful in determining therapy and dietary management. Most Common renal calculi seen in clinical practice are given as under:
Calcium Oxalate Monohydrate and Dihydrate, Uric Acid, Ammonium Hydrogen Urate, Cystine, Carbonate Apatite, Calcium Hydrogen Phosphate, Magnesium Hydrogen Phosphate.
1407 RD1502 KINSHIP ANALYSIS STR Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD (DONOR AND RECIPIENT) +  REQUIRED DOCUMENTATION AMBIENT India Relatedness between individuals and groups can be investigated using DNA
markers. A child’s DNA profile is a combination of alleles passed down from the
father and mother. This means that relationships can be investigated between
alleged family members.
1408 RD1511 KINSHIP ANALYSIS STR Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD (DONOR AND RECIPIENT) +  REQUIRED DOCUMENTATION AMBIENT India Relatedness between individuals and groups can be investigated using DNA
markers. A child’s DNA profile is a combination of alleles passed down from the
father and mother. This means that relationships can be investigated between
alleged family members.
1409 RD1315 KRAS codon 61 Mutation Detection PCR – Sequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India This assay is useful for the detection of KRAS mutations which are associated with shorter progression­free survival in Colorectal cancers. Codon 12 and codon 13 are more prevalent while codon 61 forms less than 1% of KRAS mutations.
1410 RD1307 KRAS MUTATION DETECTION PYROSEQUENCING TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED/UNSTAINED SLIDES – 5 NOS/CELL BLOCKS A India KRAS mutation testing is recommended prior to initiation of EGFR targeted therapy in Colorectal carcinoma. Absence of detectable KRAS mutation within the tumor suggests that this patient may respond to such therapies.
1411 7922 LAMBDA FITC, IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA + CLINICAL HISTORY A India N/A
1412 1662 LAMBDA FREE LIGHT CHAIN NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (21 DAYS) India To help detect, diagnose, and monitor plasma cell disorders (dyscrasias) such as multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, and related diseases or to monitor the effectiveness of treatment
1413 Z032K LAMBDA LIGHT CHAIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India useful in establishing clonality of B-cell and plasma cell neoplasms and in amyloidosis.
1414 1662U24 LAMBDA LIGHT CHAIN QUANTITATIVE, 24 hrs. URINE NEPHELOMETRY 24 HRS URINE SAMPLES WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION+ CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY  (MENTION 24 HRS URINE VOLUME) 2-8°C (7 DAYS) India To help detect, diagnose, and monitor plasma cell disorders (dyscrasias) such as multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, and related diseases or to monitor the effectiveness of treatment
1415 1662U LAMBDA LIGHT CHAIN QUANTITATIVE, URINE RANDOM NEPHELOMETRY RANDOM URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY 2-8°C (7 DAYS) India To help detect, diagnose, and monitor plasma cell disorders (dyscrasias) such as multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, and related diseases or to monitor the effectiveness of treatment
1416 4063 LAMOTRIGINE Homogeneous Enzyme Immunoassay  EDTA Plasma . Trough level (Draw specimen immediately before next scheduled dose or at least 12 hours after last dose.)Mentioned Clinical history/medication details mandatory. FROZEN India Lamotrigine is used in the treatment of Bipolar I disorder and a wide variety of seizures including Primary generalized tonic clonic seizures and Partial seizures. It is also used to treat Migraine, Trigeminal neuralgia and Treatment refractory depression. This assay is used to monitor the blood levels, assess compliance and adjust dosage in patients receiving other anticonvulsant agents which interact pharmacokineticall y with Lamotrigine.
1417 Z207K LAP (LEUCOCYTE ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE / NEUTROPHIL ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE (NAP)SCORE) CYTOCHEMISTRY SPECIAL STAINS FRESH PERIPHERAL SMEARS AIR DRIED + CLINICAL HISTORY A India  high LAP score include blastic and accelerated phases of CML, neutrophilia of infection, polycythaemia vera, leukamoid reaction, Hodgkin lymphoma etc. Decreased scores are seen in CML, PNH with Aplastic anaemia and Heriditary hypophosphatasia. This test is not diagnostic of CML.
1418 9316B LARGE TISSUE / SPECIMEN+SLIDE RETURN HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE IN 10% NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN+ SITE OF BIOPSY SPECIMEN + CLINICAL DETAILS. RELEVANT RADIOLOGY FINDINGS: X-RAY/CT/MRI  REPORT IMAGES (SOFT COPY). A India Histopathological diagnosis of specimen
1419 9224RFX LBC REFLEX TO HPV-PCR- SUREPATH CYTOLOGY [FULLY -AUTOMATED] + HPV-PCR CYTOLOGY
+
PCR
SPECIMEN FIXED IN  SUREPATH
PRESERVATIVE SOLUTION
+
CLINICAL HISTORY & AGE / SEX/ LMP
15 – 30 ºC India Cervical cancer screening
1420 8033 LDH- ISOENZYMES BY ELECTROPHORESIS  ELECTROPHORESIS FASTING SERUM STRICTLY REFRIGERATED India LDH is found in highest concentrations in liver, heart, muscle, kidney, lung & erythrocytes. This assay is useful for investigating a variety of diseases involving these organs. It is also used to monitor changes in tumor burden after chemotherapy.
1421 9142U24 LEAD, 24 HRS URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) 2-8°C (5 days); F (>5 -30 days) India Elevated urinary Lead concentration is indicative of chronic lead toxicity. Urinary Lead concentrations may be used to monitor detoxification therapy.
1422 9142 LEAD, BLOOD GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION IMPROVE/BD, SRL EDTA VACCUTAINER, WHOLE BLOOD +AGE+SEX MANDATORY FOR REPORTING 2-8°C (7DAYS); F (>7 -30 DAYS) India Blood Lead is useful in detecting industrial, dietary and accidental exposure to lead and to monitor detoxification therapy.
1423 9142U LEAD, URINE SPOT GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Elevated urinary Lead concentration is indicative of chronic lead toxicity. Urinary Lead concentrations may be used to monitor detoxification therapy.
1424 8111 LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILA ANTIGEN DETECTION, URINE Immunochromatography SPOT URINE FROZEN(STABILITY: 4 DAYS) India Legionella urinary antigen is useful in conjunction with other laboratory tests in the diagnosis of Legionnaires disease. Known risk factors of this disease are immunosuppressio n, smoking, alcohol and concomitant pulmonary disease.
1425 7451 LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILA IGM (SERUM,EIA) EIA SERUM R/F India Legionella pneumophila causes pulmonary disease in both normal and immunocompetent hosts leading to Legionnaires disease, Pontiac fever and extra pulmonary infections which are collectively referred to as Legionellosis.
1426 1492 LEISHMANIA DONOVANI (LD) BODIES DETECTION MICROSCOPY EDTA / SPLENIC ASPIRATE / BONE MARROW+ SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Leishmania donovani causes Kala Azar. Serologic tests may be done in immunosuppresse d patients from endemic areas who show definite clinical findings.  Cross reactivity may be seen with Trypanosomiasis, Malaria and Leprosy.
1427 2438E LEPRA SMEAR MICROSCOPY SKIN SMEAR R India To detect the aetiological agent of leprosy i.e Mycobacterium leprae
1428 4805 LEPTIN Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C ( 24 HRS.), >24HRS. (-20°C) India Leptin is an adipocyte derived hormone that is essential for normal body weight regulation. Leptin production is under neuroendocrine control and the serum concentrations vary directly with the amount of triglycerides stored in adipose tissue depots.
1429 DT3220 LEPTOCHEQ Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay / DARKFIELD MICROSCOPY / UA / DIPSTICK & MICROSCOPY/  SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM 10- 12 HRS FASTING/ WB-HEPARIN / URINE  IN PLAIN VACCUTAINER STERILE. (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) SERUM : 2-8°C (2 DAYS), F (> 2 DAYS); URINE : 2-8°C(24 HRS)  FOR DARKFIELD MICROSCOPY MUST BE AMBIENT, WITHIN 24HRS OF COLLECTION India To help diagnose leptospira infection
1430 9910 LEPTOSPIRA DNA PCR POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION WB-EDTA / URINE IN STERILE CONTAINER A India This assay is useful for the detection of Leptospira in blood/urine samples
1431 7551 LEPTOSPIRA IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (5 days); -20°C (>5 days) India Leptospirosis is a zoonotic disease transmitted through soil, food or water contaminated by urine of infected animal. Illness may be self limiting or cause Hepatorenal failure (Weil syndrome). IgG antibodies appear late and may persist for a long time.
1432 7621 LEPTOSPIRA IgM ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (5 days); -20°C (>5 days) India Leptospirosis is a zoonotic disease transmitted through soil, food or water contaminated by urine of infected animal. Illness may be self limiting or cause Hepatorenal failure (Weil syndrome. IgM antibodies appear within 1­2 weeks after onset of illness and peak at 2­4 weeks.
1433 1674S LEUKEMIA / LYMPHOMA EVALUATION WITH HISTOPATHOLOGY IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY & HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK (SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY)MANDATORY A India To help classify leukemia/ lymphoma
1434 RD1330 Leukemia Translocation Panel (Custom 4 markers) MULTIPLEX RT-PCR  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India The Leukemia evaluation employs cell surface & cytoplasmic markers as a two step process to aid in the diagnosis and characterisation of neoplasms of hematopoietic origin. Results are useful in the differential diagnosis, therapeutic monitoring and detection of relapses of these neoplasms.
1435 1625 LEUKEMIA TRANSLOCATION PANEL 1 (t(1;19) (q23;p13), Inv(16)(p13;q22), t(9;22) (q34;q11), t(4;11) (q21;q23), t(12;21) (p13;q22), t(15;17)(q22;q22), t(8;21)(q22;q22)) MULTIPLEX RT-PCR  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India This panel detects following seven translocations :
t(1; 19) (q23; p13), Inv 16 (p13; q22), t(9; 22) (q34; q11), t(4;11) (q21; q23),
t(12; 21) (p13; q22), t(15; 17) (q21; q22), t(8;21) (q22; q22)
–Characterization of fusion gene transcripts in leukemia that result from chromosome translocations provides valuable information regarding appropriate treatment and prognosis.
–It provides prognostic information for AML as well as ALL  patients
1436 1626 LEUKEMIA TRANSLOCATION PANEL 2  (Inv(16)(p13;q22), t(15;17)(q22;q22), t(8;21)(q22;q22)) MULTIPLEX RT-PCR  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India This panel targets following three translocations:
t(15; 17) (q21; q22), Inv 16 (p13; q22), t(8; 21) (q22; q22)
–Characterization of fusion gene transcripts in leukemia that result from chromosome translocations provides valuable information for appropriate treatment descisions and prognosis.
–It provides prognostic information for AML patients i.e.
1437 1627 LEUKEMIA TRANSLOCATION PANEL 3  (t(1;11) (p32;q23), t(1;11) (p21;q23), t(4;11) (q21;q23), t(6;11) (q27;q23), t(9;11) (p22;q23), t(10;11) (p12;q23), t(11;17) (q23;q21), t(11;19) (q23;p13.1), t(11;19) (q23;p13.3), Dup MLL (11q23), t(X;11) (q13;q23)) MULTIPLEX RT-PCR  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India This panel targets following eleven different translocations. in MLL gene:
t(1;11) (p32; q23), t(1;11) (p21; q23), t(4; 11) (q21; q23), t(6;11) (q27; q23),
t(9;11)(p22;q23), t(10;11)(p12;q23), Dup MLL (11q23), t(11; 17) (q23; q21), t(11; 19) (q23; p13.1), t(11; 19) (q23; p13.3), t(X;11) (q13; q23)
–Characterization of fusion gene transcripts in leukemia that result from chromosome translocations provides valuable information regarding appropriate treatment and prognosis.
–MLL gene rearrangements are associated with an extremely poor prognosis in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL); particularly infant ALL
1438 1628 LEUKEMIA TRANSLOCATION PANEL 4   t(1; 19) (q23; p13), t(9; 22) (q34; q11), t(4;11) (q21; q23), t(1;11) (p32; q23), t(11;
19) (q23; p13.3), t(X;11) (q13; q23)
MULTIPLEX RT-PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India This panel detects following six translocations :
t(1; 19) (q23; p13), t(9; 22) (q34; q11), t(4;11) (q21; q23), t(1;11) (p32; q23), t(11;
19) (q23; p13.3), t(X;11) (q13; q23)
–Characterization of fusion gene transcripts in leukemia that result from chromosome translocations provides valuable information regarding appropriate treatment and prognosis.
–Presence of any of these six translocations indicates poor prognosis for the ALL patients.
1439 1624 LEUKEMIA TRANSLOCATION PANEL 5 t(9; 22) (q34; q11), Dup MLL (11q23), t(11; 17) (q23; q21), MULTIPLEX RT-PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India This panel detects following three translocations :t(9; 22) (q34; q11), Dup MLL (11q23), t(11; 17) (q23; q21),
–Characterization of fusion gene transcripts in leukemia that result from chromosome translocations provides valuable information regarding appropriate treatment and prognosis.
–Presence of any of the three translocations indicates poor prognosis in AML patients
1440 1678 LEUKEMIA TRANSLOCATION PANEL 6 t(1; 19) (q23; p13), t(9; 22) (q34; q11), t(4;11) (q21; q23) and t(12; 21) (p13; q22), MULTIPLEX RT-PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India This panel detects following four translocations : t(1; 19) (q23; p13), t(9; 22) (q34; q11), t(4;11) (q21; q23) and t(12; 21) (p13; q22). Characterization of fusion gene transcripts in leukemia that result from chromosome translocations provides valuable information regarding appropriate treatment and prognosis.
• It provides prognostic information for AML as well as ALL  patients
1441 5016 LEUKEMIA TRANSLOCATION PANEL 8 MULTIPLEX RT-PCR  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India N/A
1442 1759 LEUKEMIA TRANSLOCATIONS – PANEL 7 MULTIPLEX RT-PCR  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India This panel detects following translocations :
t(1; 19) (q23; p13), t(9; 22) (q34; q11), t(4;11) (q21; q23), t(1;11) (p32; q23),
t(11; 19) (q23; p13.3), t(X;11) (q13; q23), t(12; 21) (p13; q22). Presence of any of six translocations, except t(12; 21)  indicates poor prognosis for the ALL patients. In B-ALL cases, t(12;21 is associated with a favourable prognosis.
1443 5020 LEVETIRACETAM Homogeneous Enzyme Immunoassay  Serum separated from red top vacutainer .Specimen should be collected at Trough level (Before the next dose) FROZEN India To determine the concentration of levetiracetam in the blood to establish an individualized dose; to detect toxicity or verify that you are taking the medication as prescribed (compliance); to monitor during health changes that may affect drug clearance and/or kidney function
1444 1613 LGL PANEL FLOW CYTOMETRY WB- EDTA / BM-EDTA  / WB- HEPARIN / BM HEPARIN+DIRECT SMEAR+HISTORY A India To help diagnose LARGE GRANULAR LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA
1445 3446D LIPOPROTEIN (a) NEPHELOMETRY 12 -14 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (> 7 DAYS-30 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India This assay provides additional information on Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) risk in patients known or suspected to be at increased risk based on factors like family history of premature CHD or Stroke, Hypertension, Cigarette smoking, Obesity, Diabetes mellitus, increased levels of LDL and decreased levels of HDL. High levels of Lp(a) increase cardiovascular risk 2­3 fold. Lp(a) behaves like an acute phase protein and should not be measured during periods of active inflammation and for at least 1 month after Myocardial infarction or Stroke.
1446 1284 LIQUID BASED CYTOLOGY
( SUREPATH CYTOLOGY)
CYTOLOGY SPECIMEN FIXED IN SUREPATH
PRESERVATIVE SOLUTION + CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE, LMP
15 – 30 ºC India Cervical cancer screening
1447 1284P LIQUID BASED CYTOLOGY
( SUREPATH CYTOLOGY)
CYTOLOGY SPECIMEN FIXED IN SUREPATH
PRESERVATIVE SOLUTION + CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE, LMP
15 – 30 ºC India Cervical cancer screening
1448 1274 LIQUID BASED CYTOLOGY- PAP SMEAR CYTOLOGY     IN  LBC  CONTAINER
( Clinical history required )
A India Liquid based cytology increases the sensitivity of detection of precancerous cervical lesions. Screening has substantially reduced the mortality rate due to Cervical cancer. Screening guidelines recommend regular PAP testing for all women greater than 21 years of age. At age 30, women who have had 3 normal test results in a row may get screened every 2 to 3 years.Women between 65­70 years with no abnormal results in the previous 10 years can stop screening. Women after Total hysterectomy for non­cancerous causes do not require screening.
1449 RD1514 LIQUID BIOPSY EGFR TRUE RT PCR EDTA Plasma( Frozen), +clinical history FROZEN STRICTLY India To detect EGFR mutation
1450 4871 LITHIUM ION SELECTIVE ELECTRODE SERUM (10-12 HRS FASTING) AVOID LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SPECIMEN.  (CLINICAL HISTORY , AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (24 HRS ); F (>24 HRS – 7 DAYS) India This assay is used to monitor therapy of patients with Bipolar disorder including recurrent episodes of Mania and Depression. It is also useful to evaluate toxicity.
1451 1115 LIVER KIDNEY MICROSOME  1 (LKM1) AUTOANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs);       -20°C (>48 hrs) India This antibody can be demonstrated in majority of Autoimmune Hepatitis (AIH) cases like Chronic active hepatitis. This assay is useful for evaluating patients with liver disease of unknown etiology and suspected AIH.
1452 DT6302 LIVORHYTHM – 2 CHEMILUMINESCENCE, ENZYME  IMMUNOASSAY SERUM 2 VIALS 2-8°C (72 HRS), F (>72 HRS) India N/A
1453 DT6304 LIVORHYTHM – 4 (HCV RNA {NESTED REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE PCR}, HCV ABS, HBVDNA PCR, Small tissue biopsy, Special STains, AFB Culture, MYCO3PLEX DNA PCR) CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA), ECLIA, REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE PCR, DNA PCR, FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE , HISTOPATHOLOGY AND SPECIAL STAINS+MICROPARTICLE ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY PLASMA-EDTA, SERUM, SMALL TISSUE BIOPSY / CORE (NEEDLE) BIOPSY / FINE NEEDLE ASPIRATION BIOPSY IN  (A) FORMALIN &  (B) NORMAL SALINE, SPECIAL STAINS F           A        A India N/A
1454 WI7441C L-LACTATE, CSF (ONLY FOR WALKIN PATIENT AT SRL GORGAON LAB) SPECTROPHOTOMETRY CSF(PLAIN TUBE) + CLINICAL HISTORY F India N/A
1455 WI7441D L-LACTATE, PLASMA (ONLY FOR WALKIN PATIENT AT SRL GORGAON LAB) SPECTROPHOTOMETRY PLASMA FLUORIDE (BLOOD COLLECTION FROM STASIS FREE VEIN TO BE STORE IN ICE BATH. PLASMA TO BE SEPARATED WITHIN 30 MIN) + (CLINICAL HISTORY , AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) F India N/A
1456 5000 LP- PLA2 (PLAC) – CARDIAC RISK MARKER CLIA Serum Frozen India 1. Lp-PLA2 test is a blood test that measures the concentration of Lp-PLA2(lipoprotein – associated phospholipase A2 a vascular-specific inflammatory marker implicated in the formation of rupture-prone plaque.
2. Lp-PLA2 is a biomarker providing information on risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (CVD) independent of traditional cardiovascular risk factors .
3. Lp-PLA2 is produced in the plaque itself.It is vascular specific unlike other inflammatory markers that measure systemic inflammation .
4. The Lp-PLA2 test may be used as a management tool in patients at moderate to high risk for CVD events, such as family of CVD or hypertension ,diabetes, metabolic syndrome and chronic kidney disease and hyperlipidemia .
5. An elevated Lp-PLA2 test may indicate need for more aggressive lipid lowering therapy to reduce the risk of CVD events.
1457 4817 Lung Cancer Panel (EGFR Mutation+EML4 ALK by FISH) Pyrosequencing/FISH TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED/UNSTAINED SLIDES – 5 NOS/CELL BLOCKS A India Activating mutations in EGFR are present in approximately 10­12% of Non­Small cell carcinomas of the lung (Primarily Adenocarcinomas) . EGFR mutation predict a good response to treatment with EGFR inhibitors like gefitinib and erlotinib. ALK rearrangement testing by FISH along with EGFR molecular testing are recommended for recurrent or metastatic cases with histological subtypes of Adenocarcinoma, Large cell carcinoma, or NSCLC NOS (not otherwise specified), and Squamous cell carcinoma in non­smokers or when biopsy specimens are small. FISH technique is the gold standard for detecting ALK­1 gene rearrangements.
1458 RD1503 LUNG CANCER PROFILER NEXT Next Gen Sequencing PARAFFIN BLOCK +CLINICAL HISTORY A India This test is used for tumor molecular profiling using next generation sequencing
1459 5964 LUPUS ANTICOAGULANT SCREENING PROFILE CLOT BASED FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* 2 VIALS-  AT MINUS 20° C(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + CLINICAL HISTORY F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India Lupus Anticoagulants are heterogenous IgG or IgM autoantibodies which interfere with phospholipid dependent in vitro coagulation tests, particularly Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT). These antibodies are associated with thrombosis (arterial & venous), recurrent abortions, neurological  & neuropsychiatric disorders.
1460 Z164K LUTEINIZING HORMONE (LH) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India used for classification of Pituitary adenomas.
1461 2069I LYME DISEASE (BORRELIA BURGDORFERI IgG) Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 days ),>7days( -20°C) India Lyme disease is transmitted by a tick vector carrying Borrelia burgdorferi. Immunoblot testing qualitatively examines, with high specificity, antibodies in a patient’s specimen. Immunoblot testing is appropriate for confirming a detected EIA or IFA test result.
1462 2070I LYME DISEASE (BORRELIA BURGDORFERI IgM) Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 days ),>7days( -20°C) India Lyme disease is transmitted by a tick vector carrying Borrelia burgdorferi. Immunoblot testing qualitatively examines, with high specificity, antibodies in a patient’s specimen. Immunoblot testing is appropriate for confirming a detected EIA or IFA test result.
1463 1668 LYMPH0CYTE  ENUMERATION, BASIC & NK CELLS (%CD3,%CD4,%CD8,%CD19,%CD16+56,ABS CD3,ABS CD4,ABS CD8,ABSCD19,ABSCD16+56) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA + HEPARIN
(WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS)
A India Lymphocyte Enumeration Helper/Inducer(CD3+CD4+) and suppressor(CD3+CD8+) monitors patient T-Cell status. Serial estimation of absolute T-Helper counts is valuable in predicting prognosis of the disease in HIV-infected individuals. The counts are useful in decisions regarding institution of anti-retroviral and prophylactic antibiotic therapy against opportunistic infections.
1464 1656B LYMPHOCYTE  ENUMERATION,  T- HELPER CELLS (%CD3,%CD4,ABS CD3,ABS CD4) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA + HEPARIN (WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS) A India This test (CD4 counts) is intended for use as an aid in the management and care of HIV patients and is required to assess their candidacy for ART initiation. It is not intended for use in the initial diagnosis or confirmation of HIV infection.
1465 1658B LYMPHOCYTE  ENUMERATION, T & B CELLS   (%CD3,%CD19,ABS CD3,ABS CD19) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA + HEPARIN + CLINICAL HISTORY
(WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS)
A India Antigenically peripheral blood lymphocytes are of two types, thymus (T) derived & bone marrow (B) derived.  The former is involved in cell-mediated immune response, while the latter is responsible for humoral immune response.

Enumeration of CD3 positive lymphocytes & their main subsets (CD4 positive & CD8 positive lymphocytes) is of great clinical significance in evaluation of cell mediated immune status, specially in immune compromised patients, e.g. immune deficiency syndromes.

Similarly, enumeration of B (CD19 positive) lymphocytes helps in assessing the humoral immune status of an individual.  The number of B-lymphocytes in blood can increase during bacterial infections.  Since B-lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins in response to antigenic stimulation, expansion of this population of cells is associated with polyclonal increase in immunoglobulins.

1466 1669 LYMPHOCYTE ENUMERATION, BASIC & HIV -1 ANTIBODIES,HIV ABS, WESTERN BLOT FLOW CYTOMETRY /IMMUNOBLOT WB-EDTA + HEPARIN + SERUM
(WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS)
FLOW–A, A/R/F India Lymphocyte Enumeration Helper/Inducer(cd3+cd4+) and suppressor(cd3+cd8+) monitors patient T-cell status. Serial estimation of absolute T-helper counts is valuable in predicting prognosis of the disease in HIV-infected individuals. The counts are useful in decisions regarding institution of anti-retroviral and prophylactic antibiotic therapy against opportunistic infections.
1467 1671B LYMPHOCYTE ENUMERATION, BASIC (%CD3,%CD4,%CD8,%CD19,,ABS CD3,ABS CD4,ABS CD8,ABS CD19) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA + HEPARIN
(WB TO REACH WITHIN 48 HRS)
A India Enumeration of helper/inducer (CD3+CD4+) and suppressor (CD3+CD8+) lymphocytes is required to monitor the patient’s cell mediated immune status.  Serial estimation of absolute T-helper cell counts is valuable in assessing progression of the disease in HIV-infected individuals.  The counts are useful in taking decisions regarding institution of anti-retroviral and prophylactic antibiotic therapy against opportunistic infections. Similarly, enumeration of B (CD19+) lymphocytes helps in assessing the humoral immune status of an individual.  The number of B-lymphocytes in blood can increase during bacterial infections.  Since B-lymphocytes produce immunoglobulins in response to antigenic stimulation, expansion of this population of cells is associated with polyclonal increase in immunoglobulins
1468 5401 MALE INFERTILITY PANEL,
(Testosterone Total, LH, FSH, Prolactin, TSH, Blood Lympho Culture, Anti sperm Antibodies, Urine culture, isolation & Identification + Sensitivity)
CHEMILUMINESCENCE / ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY/ CELL CULTURE/ CULTURE + SENSITIVITY BY MIC BREAKPOINT Serum ( Age+ Gender+ Clinical History Required ) **Draw sample between 8 AM to 10AM ,After 3-4 hrs patient has awakened.**
WB-HEPARIN  SPECIMEN TO REACH US within 48 hrs + FAMILY HISTORY + CLINICAL HISTORY in specified format + DETAILED PHYSICAL FEATURES
URINE(Early morning mid stream collection)  STERILE CONTAINER
2-8°C (48 hrs); F ( >48 hrs); F(-20°C); HEPARIN (A); URINE (R) (MANDATORY); India To help determine the cause of male infertility
1469 9146U24 MANGANESE 24 HRS URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) ALIQUOT. IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Manganese is a trace element that is an essential cofactor for several enzymes. Environmental sources of Manganese can lead to toxicity. This assay is useful for monitoring manganese exposure & long term parenteral nutrition with manganese supplementation.
1470 9146 MANGANESE BLOOD GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION BD, SRL EDTA WHOLE BLOOD 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -30 DAYS) India Manganese is a trace element that is an essential cofactor for several enzymes. Environmental sources of Manganese can lead to toxicity. This assay is useful for evaluating central nervous system symptoms similar to Parkinson’s disease in manganese miners and processors. It is also useful for therapeutic monitoring of Cirrhosis, environmental exposure to manganese and nutrition related manganese toxicity. It also helps to evaluate Behcet’s disease. This is the recommended test for monitoring therapy.
1471 8424 MANGANESE SERUM ICPMS ICPMS SERUM R/F India To measure hypo or hyper maganese level in serum
1472 9146U MANGANESE SPOT URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL  (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Manganese is a trace element that is an essential cofactor for several enzymes. Environmental sources of Manganese can lead to toxicity. This assay is useful for monitoring manganese exposure & long term parenteral nutrition with manganese supplementation.
1473 3322 MAPLE SYRUP URINE DISORDERS (NEONATAL SCREENING) Enzymatic DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India This assay confirms the presence of Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine & Alloisoleucine for the diagnosis of MSUD. It also aids in the followup of patients with MSUD and
1474 1268 MATERNAL SCREENING
(DOUBLE MARKER TEST)
1st Trimester Risk assessment
8 – 13.6 weeks. (FREE BHCG & PAPP-A)
CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM in 2 vials (Clinical Details in specified format, Maternal Date of Birth, Maternal Weight, Maternal Race,
Maternal H/O Type I Diabetes Mellitus + Obstetric USG Report between 10 to 13 weeks of gestation+Date of collection) MANDATORY
2-8°C (24 hrs); F ( >24 hrs) India The Dual Screen test between 9­13 weeks of pregnancy has significant utility in First trimester Prenatal Screening of Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21), and other chromosomal anomalies. The false positive rate is 5% but the detection of Down Syndrome is as high as 85­90%.
1475 1275 MATERNAL SCREENING
(QUADRUPLE MARKER TEST)
2nd Trimester Risk assessment,
14 – 22 Weeks. ( AFP, HCG, E3UN & DIA)
CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM in 2 vials (Clinical Details in specified format, Maternal Date of Birth, Maternal Weight, Maternal Race,
Maternal H/O Type I Diabetes Mellitus + Obstetric USG Report between 10 to 13 weeks of gestation+Date of collection) MANDATORY
2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India The Quadruple test is used for Prenatal Screening of Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21), Edward’s Syndrome (Trisomy 18) and Open Neural Tube Defects. The approximate detection rate with this test is 75­80 % with a false positive rate of 5%
1476 1278 MATERNAL SCREENING
(SEQUENTIAL INTEGRATED TEST)
Phase I (1st Trimester):
10 – 13.6 weeks (FREE BHCG & PAPP – A).  Screen Positive cases are offered CVS or Amniocentesis Chromosome analysis, whereas Screen Negative are offered second Trimester Serum test.
Phase II (2nd Trimester):
15 – 22 weeks (AFP, HCG, E3UN & DIA).
Final risk assessment incorporates First and Second Trimester results.
CHEMILUMINESCENCE/ KARYOTYPING SERUM IN 2 VIALS (CLINICAL DETAILS IN SPECIFIED FORMAT, DATE OF BIRTH, MATERNAL WEIGHT, MATERNAL RACE + USG REPORT +DATE OF COLLECTION+LMP DATE)                                GA: 8- 12 WEEKS CHORIONIC VILLUS  IN MEDIUM (MEDIUM WILL BE PROVIDED BY THE LAB),
GA: 14-19 AMNIOTIC FLUID                                                     CLINICAL HISTORY, CONSENT FORM WITH PND REGISTRATION NUMBER IS MANDATORY. SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 HRS AFTER COLLECTION
Phase I (1st Trimester): 2-8°C (24 hrs); F (>24 hrs)
Phase II (2nd Trimester):
2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs)
CVS: Ambient Amniotic Fluid
India Screening test to detect genetic abnormalities or other defects in developing foetus
1477 1277 MATERNAL SCREENING
(STANDARD INTEGRATED TEST)
Phase I (1st Trimester) : 10 – 13.6 Weeks.
(FREE BHCG & PAPP – A).
Phase II (2nd Trimester): 15 – 22 Weeks.
(AFP, HCG, E3UN & DIA). Final risk assessment incorporates First and Second Trimester results.
CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM IN 2 VIALS (CLINICAL DETAILS IN SPECIFIED FORMAT, DATE OF BIRTH, MATERNAL WEIGHT, MATERNAL RACE + USG REPORT BETWEEN 10 TO 13 WEEKS OF GESTATION +DATE OF COLLECTION+LMP DATE) MANDATORY Phase I (1st Trimester): 2-8°C (24 hrs); F (>24 hrs)
Phase II (2nd Trimester):
2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs)
India Screening test to detect genetic abnormalities or other defects in developing foetus
1478 1267 MATERNAL SCREENING (TRIPLE MARKER TEST) 2nd Trimester Risk assessment,
14 – 22 Weeks. (AFP, HCG & E3UN)
CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM in 2 vials (Clinical Details in specified format, Maternal Date of Birth, Maternal Weight, Maternal Race,
Maternal H/O Type I Diabetes Mellitus + Obstetric USG Report between 10 to 13 weeks of gestation+Date of collection) MANDATORY
2-8°C (72 hrs); F (> 72 hrs – 15 Days) India The Triple Screen test is used for Prenatal Screening of Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21), Edward’s Syndrome (Trisomy 18) and Open Neural Tube Defects. The approximate detection rate with this test is 55–65% with a false positive rate of 5%.
1479 8771 MEASLES IgG & IgM ANTIBODIES Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS);  -20°C  (>7 DAYS) India Measles  virus  is highly  contagious particularly infecting children, pregnant women, immunocompromi sed and nutritionally deficient individuals. IgG positivity  indicates previous exposure  to Rubeola virus or immunity. IgM positivity indicates recent infection, with Rubeola virus.
1480 8776 MEASLES IgG ANTIBODIES Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS);  -20°C  (>7 DAYS) India Measles  virus  is highly  contagious particularly infecting children, pregnant women, immunocompromi sed and nutritionally deficient individuals. IgG positivity  indicates previous exposure  to Rubeola virus or immunity.
1481 8781 MEASLES IgM ANTIBODIES Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS);  -20°C  (>7 DAYS) India Measles  virus  is highly  contagious particularly infecting children, pregnant women, immunocompromi sed and nutritionally deficient individuals. IgM positivity indicates recent infection, with Rubeola virus.
1482 Z253K MELAN-A IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India To help diagnose malignant melanoma
1483 7002 MENOPAUSE PLUS PROFILE LIA, EIA, RIA 7 SALIVA SAMPLES COLLECTED OVER A 6 DAYS PERIOD •WASH HANDS BEFORE COLLECTION. • SEE INSTRUCTIONS INSIDE TEST KIT FOR DETAILS.ON REQUEST KIT WILL BE PROVIDED BY SRL,MUMBAI F India To Evaluate MENOPAUSE PROFILE
1484 9138U24 MERCURY, 24 HRS URINE HGAAS 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE)  ALIQUOT. IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Mercury, a highly toxic metal is present in select industrial environments and in contaminated ocean fish. Urinary measurement is the most reliable way to assess exposure to inorganic mercury.
1485 9138 MERCURY, BLOOD ICPMS BD, SRL EDTA VACCUTAINER, WHOLE BLOOD 2-8°C (15 DAYS); SENDING SAMPLE UNDER COLD CONDITIONS (2-8°C) IS MANDATORY India To determine mercury level in blood
1486 9138U MERCURY, URINE SPOT HGAAS SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India Mercury, a highly toxic metal is present in select industrial environments and in contaminated ocean fish. Urinary measurement is the most reliable way to assess exposure to inorganic mercury.
1487 9131 MERCURY,SERUM ICPMS ICPMS SERUM R/F India To determine mercury level in serum
1488 3315P METANEPHRINE-FREE, PLASMA EIA EDTA PLASMA .It is mandatory to forward clinical history allow with the sample FROZEN India This  assay  is useful  as  a screening  test for the presumptive diagnosis of catecholamine secreting Pheochromocytom a & Paragangliomas. Metanephrine and Normetanephrine are 3­Methoxy metabolites of Epinephrine and Normetanephrine respectively. These are further metabolized to VMA. This assay may be used as a first order screening test.
1489 3317 METANEPHRINES ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY 24HRS URINE (Preservative:15 – 20ML 6N HCL) . (The patient should not consume,Vitamin B, COFFEE AND BANANAS, 48hrs prior to the collection of the specimen.It is advisable to discontinue all medications, alpha methyldopa, MAO & COMT Inhibitors as well as medications related to  Hypertension should be discontinued atleast 72 hrs prior to specimen collection.If medications takenshould be  STrictly on the advise of the referring physician, the same should be mentioned.Please freeze the specimen immediately after collection. CLINICAL DETAILS(Patient’s clinical history, CT SCAN , USG & MEDICATION MANDATORY) mention 24 hrs urine volume STRICTLY F India This  assay  is useful  as  a screening  test for the presumptive diagnosis of catecholamine secreting Pheochromocytom a & Paragangliomas. Metanephrine and Normetanephrine are 3­Methoxy metabolites of Epinephrine and Normetanephrine respectively. These are further metabolized to VMA. This assay may be used as a first order screening test.
1490 Z243K METASTASIS OF UNKNOWN ORIGIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India to classify neoplasms of uncertain origin
1491 Z232 METATASTIC TUMOUR BREAST (ER, PgR, Her-2/neu, GCDFP-15) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India To help diagnose breast tumor metastasis
1492 4149 METHADONE, URINE Lateral Flow Chromatography Immunoassay. URINE + CLINICAL HISTORY A (8HRS); 2- 8º C (3 DAYS);F (>3 DAYS) India Methadone is a synthetic opoid used clinically to relieve pain, treat opoid abstinence syndrome and to treat heroin addiction in the attempt to wean patients from illicit drug use.
1493 4202 METHAEMOGLOBIN ESTIMATION SPECTROPHOTOMETRY EDTA BLOOD A India  Excessive formation of Hi occurs as a result of oxidation of Hb by drugs and chemicals such as phenacetin, sulphonamides, aniline dyes, nitrates and nitrites. Other (rare) types of methemoglobinaemia are caused by inherited deficiency of the enzyme NADH methemoglobin reductase and by rare hemoglobinopathies (e.g. Hb M). Methemoglobin leads to cyanosis which becomes obvious with as little as 15 g/l of Hi, i.e. about 10 %.
1494 2124 METHYLMALONIC ACID, URINE QUALITATIVE URINE (RANDOM) FROZEN India The assay is a specific diagnostic marker for methylmalonic acidemias which can be  congenital or acquired. The acquired  causes are more common and usually  found in patients with cobalamine (Vitamin B12) deficiency as a consequence  of intestinal malabsorption, impaired digestion or poor diet. Other causes are renal insufficiency, hypovolemia and bacterial overgrowth in small intestine.
1495 Z245K MIB-1 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Determining proliferation of tumor cells in paraffin-embedded tissue blocks from patients diagnosed with breast carcinoma
1496 Z218K MIC2 GENE PRODUCTS, EWING SARCOMA MARKER/Also known as CD99 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India To help diagnose EWINGS SARCOMA
1497 1493 MICROFILARIA DETECTION MICROSCOPY WB-EDTA  + SMEAR (MIDNIGHT COLLECTION SPECIMEN PREFERRED) A India Filariasis is a disease resulting from parasitization by thread like of filiform worms called filariae. The embryos circulate in lymphatic tissues and blood as microfilaria leading to Lymphangitis, Lymphadenitis, Elephantiasis and Tropical eosinophilia.
1498 RD1461 MICROSATELLITE STABILITY INDEX(MSI ANALYSIS) PCR Fragment Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD AND PARAFFIN BLOCK + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India This panel studies mismatch repair proteins in Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal cancer.
1499 Z262K MLH1 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ Site of biopsy and Clinical details MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Immunohistochemical testing for MLH1expression provides useful prognostic information for the management of colorectal cancer patients. It is also used as routine
screening for Lynch syndrome
1500 RD1447 MLH1 Hypermethylation Pyrosequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED AMBIENT India Detection of MLH1 hypermethylated alleles
1501 5207 MONSOON ALLERGY PANEL ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India Allergy test
1502 RD1322 MPL Mutation Detection PCR  Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Mutations in exon 10 of MPL have been detected in approximately 5% of patients with Primary myelofibrosis (PMF) and Essential thrombocythemia (ET).
1503 RD1322RFX MPN Reflex Panel PCR-SEQUENCING WB-EDTA/ BONE MARROW-EDTA (Specimen to reach us within 48 hrs)+CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India To help diagnose myeloproliferative neoplasms.
1504 7687 MPN Reflex Panel 1 PCR-SEQUENCING WB-EDTA/ BONE MARROW-EDTA (Specimen to reach us within 48 hrs)+CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India To help diagnose myeloproliferative neoplasms
1505 Z263K MSH2 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ Site of biopsy and Clinical details MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India  genetic testing of the tumour DNA to determine whether whether mutation in MSH2 is present.
1506 Z264K MSH6 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ Site of biopsy and Clinical details MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India  genetic testing of the tumour DNA to determine whether whether mutation in MS6 is present.
1507 9336 MISMATCH REPAIR GENE (IHC)
or MSI STUDY (MLH-1,MSH-2,MSH-6,PMS-2)
IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India  genetic testing of the tumour DNA to determine whether mutation in MSI is present.
1508 9802 MTHFR MUTATION DETECTION PCR Sequencing  EDTA Whole Blood +  CLINICAL HISTORY A India Homozygous mutation for MTHFR (Methylenetetrahy drofolate reductase)  is associated with Hyperhomocystein emia which is an independent risk factor for stroke, MI, peripheral arterial disease and  venous thrombosis. Indian  studies suggest  that heterozygosity  for MTHFR C677T is also associated with elevated homocysteine levels.
1509 3262 MUCOR RACEMOSUS -SPECIFIC IgG ImmunoCAP(FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY) SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);  -20°C (>1 week) India MUCOR RACEMOSUS IgG antibodies test
1510 4573 Multiple Myeloma MRD Panel Flowcytometry BONE MARROW HEPARIN (2 VIALS)
To reach lab within 24 hours from collection
A India Detection of Minimal Residual Disease (MRD) in Acute lymphoblastic leukemia predicts outcome. This assay can identify patients at higher/lower risk of relapse. Detection of MRD is important for risk assessment and stratification of therapy.
1511 6031F Multiple Myeloma panel FISH BONE MARROW – SODIUM HEPARIN + CLINICAL HISTORY  SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [Please mention the CLINICAL HISTORY, blood picture (CBC Report) and medication of the patient on the TRF] ambient India Prognostic marker in patients with Multiple myeloma.
1512 Z282K MUM-1 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India MUM1 is a powerful tool for understanding the histogenesis of B-cell lymphomas. MUM1 protein is an excellent marker for Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells of classical Hodgkin lymphoma in combination with CD30. Furthermore, MUM1 seems to be a marker of prognostic value since it has been found that the expression of MUM1 is associated with the poor prognosis of patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL).
1513 9711 MUMPS IgG & IgM ANTIBODIES Chemiluminescent Immunoassay (CLIA) SERUM 2-8°C (9DAYS); -20 TO     -70°C  (>9 DAYS) India This  assay  is used  for  the laboratory diagnosis of Mumps  virus infection. Absence of detectable IgG antibodies suggests lack of specific immune response to immunization and no previous exposure to the virus. Detection  of IgM  antibodies supports  a clinical diagnosis of recent / acute phase infection with the virus.
1514 4065 MUSK ANTIBODY (SERUM) RADIO IMMUNOASSAY SERUM F India MuSK antibodies have been detected in patients with Myasthenia gravis who are  seronegative for Acetylcholine receptor antibodies. This assay  is  used  to evaluate  patient response  to therapies for ongoing management.
1515 6029F MYC gene FISH HEPARIN WB / Bone Marrow + + CLINICAL HISTORY  SPECIMEN TO REACH US  WITHIN 48 HRS AFTER COLLECTION. [Please mention the CLINICAL HISTORY, blood picture (CBC Report) and medication of the patient on the TRF] ambient India The MYCN gene, which encodes the n­myc protein, is a proto­oncogene with highest expression in the developing brain and insignificant expression in normal adult tissues. Gene amplification is detected in approximately 20% of Neuroblastoma and a variety of other solid tumors including 5% Medulloblastoma, Glioblastoma multiforme, 25% Alveolar rhabdomyosarcom a, 15­20% Small­cell lung cancer, 40% Neuroendocrine prostate cancer, and 5% Prostate adenocarcinoma. MYCNamplifications are associated with aggressive disease and/or poor outcome. Detection can be useful to stratify patients for aggressivetreatment.
1516 4513 MYCN Gene amplification Assay FISH BLOCKS.PLEASE PROVIDE THE HISTOPATHOLOGY REPORT AND CLINICAL HISTORY  ALONG WITH THE BLOCKS. AMBIENT India The MYCN gene, which encodes the n­myc protein, is a proto­oncogene with highest expression in the developing brain and insignificant expression in normal adult tissues. Gene amplification is detected in approximately 20% of Neuroblastoma and a variety of other solid tumors including 5% Medulloblastoma, Glioblastoma multiforme, 25% Alveolar rhabdomyosarcom a, 15­20% Small­cell lung cancer, 40% Neuroendocrine prostate cancer, and 5% Prostate adenocarcinoma. MYCNamplifications are associated with aggressive disease and/or poor outcome. Detection can be useful to stratify patients for aggressivetreatment.
1517 2435 MYCO3PLEX MULTIPLEX POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION, MICROSCOPY FLUORESCENT STAIN/ ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT-960+LJ CULTURE METHOD ANY SPECIMEN OTHER THAN BLOOD IN STERILE CONTAINER/ TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE (SWABS NOT ACCEPTED) A UP TO 48 HRS AND R >48 HRS AFTER SPECIMEN COLLECTION India N/A
1518 2435F MYCO3PLEX AD WITH FREE ADA MULTIPLEX POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION, MICROSCOPY FLUORESCENT STAIN/ ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT-960+LJ CULTURE METHOD/SPECTROPHOTOMETRY ANY SPECIMEN OTHER THAN BLOOD IN STERILE CONTAINER/ TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE (SWABS NOT ACCEPTED) Culture-R /A up to 48 hrs and R >48 hrs after specimen collection   F for ADA India N/A
1519 2435T MYCO3PLEX AD WITH FREE HISTOPATH MULTIPLEX POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION, MICROSCOPY FLUORESCENT STAIN/ ZIEHL NIELSEN STAIN & MGIT-960+LJ  CULTURE METHOD ANY SPECIMEN IN STERILE CONTAINER/ TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE, TISSUE + SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS (FOR BONE SPECIMENS ALSO SEND XRAY) – SWABS NOT ACCEPTED Culture R/A up to 48 hrs and R >48 hrs after specimen collection   F for ADA India N/A
1520 1122 MYCOBACTERIA DETECTION MICROSCOPY / FLUORESCENT STAIN ANY SPECIMEN EXCEPT BLOOD, BONE MARROW.SWAB NOT ACCEPTABLE A/R India To help detect Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
1521 2401 MYCOBACTERIUM LEPRAE POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION SKIN SCRAPPING/ SKIN BIOPSY/ NASAL/SKIN SWAB / TISSUE/ SLIDES/BLOCKS A KABUL M. leprae DNA PCR is used for early detection in patients with paucibacillary and indeterminate forms of leprosy.
1522 9956 MYCOBACTERIUM SPECIATION – COMMON PCR – REVERSE PROBE HYBRIDIZATION MTB Culture Specimen A India The assay permits identification of M. avium ssp., M. chelonae, M. abscessus, M. fortuitum, M. gordonae, M. intracellulare, M. scrofulaceum, M. interjectum, M. kansasii, M. malmoense, M. peregrinum, M. marinum/ M. ulcerans, M. tuberculosis complex and M. xenopi.
1523 9955 MYCOBACTERIUM SPECIATION – EXTENDED PCR – REVERSE PROBE HYBRIDIZATION MTB Culture Specimen A India The assay permits identification of M. simiae, M. mucogenicum, M. goodii, M. celatum, M. smegmatis, M. genevense, M. lentiflavum, M. heckeshornense, M. szulgai/ M. intermedium, M. phlei, M. hemophilum, M. kansasii, M. ulcerans, M. gastri, M. asiaticum and M. shimoidei
1524 2402 MYCOBACTERIUM SPECIATION
(AFB SPECIATION)
PCR – SEQUENCING CULTURE/ SPUTUM/ BAL/ PUS + CLINICAL HISTORY (SPECIMENS OF PATIENTS WITH AFB SMEAR LESS THAN 1+ ARE NOT ACCEPTABLE) A India  This test is designed to identify all known Mycobacterium species in given pure culture or AFB smear (2+) positive specimens.
1525 8746 MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE IgG ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (2 days); -20°C  (>2 days) India Mycoplasma pneumoniae is an important respiratory  tract pathogen accounting for nearly 20% of all cases of Pneumonia. It most commonly affects children & young adults. IgG antibodies indicate previous immunologic exposure.
1526 8746M MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE IgM ANTIBODIES Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (2 days); -20°C  (>2 days) India Mycoplasma pneumoniae is an important respiratory  tract pathogen accounting for nearly 20% of all cases of Pneumonia. It most commonly affects children & young adults. Positive IgM results  are consistent  with acute infection.
1527 2434 MYCOREAL (TB PCR) REAL TIME PCR SPUTUM/ BAL/ URINE/ FNAC/ ASCITIC / PLEURAL / CSF FLUIDS/ TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE / BONE MARROW-EDTA / PARAFFIN BLOCK (SWABS AND BLOOD SPECIMEN  NOT ACCEPTED) A India This is a sensitive PCR assay for the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex and Non Tuberculous Mycobacteria (NTM).
1528 2439 MYCOtect (TB PCR) REAL TIME PCR SPUTUM/ BAL/ URINE/ FNAC/ ASCITIC / PLEURAL / CSF FLUIDS/ TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE / BONE MARROW-EDTA / PARAFFIN BLOCK (SWABS AND BLOOD SPECIMEN  NOT ACCEPTED) A India To help diagnose an infection caused by Mycobacteria.
1529 RD1517 MYD88 GENE MUTATION REAL TIME PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW/FFPE+ CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India Detection of MYD88 L265P can help establish a diagnosis of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma  (LPL)  in patients with typical histologic and flow cytometry findings
1530 Z210K MYELOPEROXIDASE (MPO) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India A marker of myeloid lineage
1531 Z206 MYELOPEROXIDASE (MPO) STAIN CYTOCHEMISTRY SPECIAL STAINS FRESH, UNSTAINED, AIR DRIED PERIPHERAL SMEAR / BONE MARROW ASPIRATE SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India  The main value of a positive myeloperoxidase reaction is in the distinction between acute myelogenous and acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Some individuals have congenital deficiency of neutrophil MPO, wherein all stages of the neutrophil lineage are MPO negative.
1532 Z246K MYO-D1 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Marker of skeletal muscle differentiation
1533 9273 MYOGLOBIN, URINE (URINE SPOT, ECLIA) ECLIA RANDOM URINE R/F (STABILITY:4 DAYS) India To determine whether muscle has been injured; to help diagnose conditions associated with muscle damage; to detect high levels in the urine that can cause kidney damage after extensive muscle damage; sometimes to help determine if you have had a heart attack, although for heart attack detection, this test has been largely replaced by troponin
1534 RD1484 MYOTONIC DYSTROPHY TYPE 1 (DM1) PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY in specified format A India DMPK mutation analysis is recommended for an individual with a clinical diagnosis of myotonic dystrophy type 1(DM-1); Carrier identification in individuals with a positive family history of DM-1. Over 98% of myotonic dystrophy cases have an expansion of the DMPK CTG repeat region. Diagnostic testing using PCR and TP-PCR is predicted to detect pathological expansions of the DMPK CTG repeat region with high sensitivity in myotonic dystrophy type 1 (DM1).This assay can determine homozygous expanded repeats by the TPP.
1535 RD1485 MYOTONIC DYSTROPHY TYPE 1 (DM1) – PNDT PCR-SEQUENCING AMNIOTIC FLUID / CVS IN STERILE SALINE / FETAL BLOOD EDTA+EDTA WHOLE BLOOD FOR BOTH PARENTS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This assay can determine homozygous expanded repeats by the TPP.
1536 Z276K NAPSIN A IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Aids in the identification of primary lung adenocarcinoma
1537 7717 NBS 4 PARAMETERS (TSH,17 ALPHA OHP,IMMUNOREACTIVE TRYPSINOGEN, TOTAL GALACTOSE) Enzyme Immunoassay DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders. (CAH, Galactosemia, Thyroid disorders, etc.)
1538 7708 NBS 7 PARA (17OH,BIOT,G6PD,IRT,PHYL,GALAC,TSH) Enzyme Immunoassay DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders. (CAH, Galactosemia, G6PD deficiency, PKU, Thyroid disorders, etc.)
1539 4464 NBS 8 PARAMETERS (17 ALPHA OHP, BIOTINIDASE DEFICIENCY,G6PD,IRT,PHENYLALANINE,GALACTOSE,TSH,SICKLE CELL Enzyme Immunoassay DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders. (CAH, Galactosemia, G6PD deficiency, PKU, Thyroid disorders, sickle cell etc.)
1540 7517 NBS NEW PANEL(CH, CAH, G6PD, GALACTOSE) Enzyme Immunoassay DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders. (CAH, Galactosemia, G6PD deficiency)
1541 4604 NBS PANEL (MORE THAN 1 MONTH) Colorimetry/FEIA,FEA,FEIA,TMS,FLUORIMETRY Dried blood spots Ambient India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders.
1542 2414 NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE CULTURE CULTURE PUS /URETHRAL DISCHARGE/VAGINAL SECRETIONS OR URETHRAL/VAGINAL SWABS IN TRANSPORT MEDIUM A India To detect infection caused by NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE
1543 9801 NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE DNA PCR POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION URETHRAL/ ENDOCERVICAL SWABS OR URINE A India Neisseria gonorrhoeae (NG) are non­motile, Gram­negative diplococci, and the causative agent of gonorrheal   disease. Gonorrhea is the second most commonly reported bacterial sexually transmitted disease. The majority of urethral infections caused by NG among men produce symptoms that cause them to seek curative treatment, but among women, infections often do not produce recognizable symptoms until complications like pelvic inflammatory disease have occurred.
1544 9611 NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS A, B, C, Y, W135 ANTIGEN DETECTION LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (FEW HRS); -20°C (LONGER) India To detect infection caused by NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS and further typing inSERUM
1545 9611C NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS A, B, C, Y, W135 ANTIGEN DETECTION, CSF LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION CSF 2-8°C (FEW HRS); -20°C (LONGER) India To detect infection caused by NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS and further typing in CSF
1546 5815F NEONATAL FISH 13 & 21 (2 PROBE) FISH WB-HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 – 48 HRS / CORD BLOOD- HEPARIN (IF BABY IS ALIVE)+CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India to help find genetic defects (13 & 21) in a developing baby
1547 5815FF NEONATAL FISH 18,X & Y (3 PROBE) FISH WB-HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 – 48 HRS / CORD BLOOD- HEPARIN (IF BABY IS ALIVE)+CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India to help find genetic defects (18, X &Y) in a developing baby
1548 5815KF NEONATAL KARYOTYPE  + FISH Karyotype + FISH WB-HEPARIN SPECIMEN TO REACH US IN 24 – 48 HRS / CORD BLOOD- HEPARIN (IF BABY IS ALIVE)+CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT A India to help find genetic defects in a developing baby
1549 3320 NEONATAL SCREENING (Biotinidase) Enzymatic DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India  Biotinidase deficiency is an autosomal recessive disoder caused by mutations in the biotinidase gene. Age of onset and clinical phenotype vary depending on the amount of residual Biotinidase activity. The combined incidence of profound and partial Biotinidase deficiency is 1 in 61000. The carrier frequency in the general population is 1 in 120. This assay is used for diagnosing biotinidase deficiency. It is also useful for follow up testing for certain Organic acidurias.
1550 3321 NEONATAL SCREENING (GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHATE DEHYDROGENASE) Enzymatic DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India G­6­PD deficiency is a sex linked disorder affecting males whereas females are the carriers. More than 300 variants of G6PD are known, hence deficiency can range from asymptomatic to acute hemolytic episodes. These episodes can be triggered by drugs, ingestion of fava beans, viral and bacterial infections.
1551 3312 NEONATAL SCREENING (PHENYLALANINE) Enzymatic DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India Phenylketonuria (PKU)  is  the most common autosomal recessive inherited disorder of  amino  acid metabolism caused by deficiency of enzyme Phenylalanine hydroxylase.   This assay is  useful for  evaluating patients  with Hyperphenylalanin emia  and monitoring effectiveness  of dietary  theapy.
1552 3309 NEONATAL SCREENING (TOTAL GALACTOSE) Enzymatic DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India Galactosemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by inability to metabolize galactose which is derived from lactose (milk sugar). The accumulation of galactose can cause feeding problems, vomiting, sepsis, diarrhoea, dehydration and hypoglycemia. Cataracts and mental retardation develop gradually.
1553 3308 NEONATAL SCREENING (TSH) Enzyme Immunoassay DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India This  test  should be  used  only  in neonates  to screen  for  thyroid disorders.
1554 3328IA NEONATAL SCREENING PANEL-1 (Immunoreactive Trypsinogen, TSH, Total Galactose, 17-Alpha-Hydroxyprogesterone, Phenylalanine, Biotinidase, Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase, Maple Syrup Urine Disease ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India The aim of newborn screening is to detect diagnostic markers of    treatable disorders in blood spots collected from pre­symptomatic newborns. Early identification of disorders significantly improves long term prognosis of affected patients, minimizes complications, avoids unnecessary diagnostic testing and identifies families for whom pre­natal genetic counselling may be helpful.
1555 3328IB NEONATAL SCREENING PANEL-2 (Immunoreactive Trypsinogen, TSH, 17-Alpha-HydroxyprogeSTerone, Phenylalanine, Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders.
1556 3328IC NEONATAL SCREENING PANEL-3 (TSH, Phenylalanine) ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders. ( Thyroid disorders and PKU)
1557 3328ID NEONATAL SCREENING PANEL-4 (G6PD, TSH, Phenylalanine) ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 DAYS) India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders. ( Thyroid disorders, G6PD deficiency and PKU)
1558 MGEN007 Nephrotic Syndrome Gene Panel 0 0 0 India #N/A
1559 1532K NERVE BIOPSY WITH NEUROFILAMENT Histopathology + IHC TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details Mandatory) . A India #N/A
1560 Z415K NEUROFILAMENT (2F11) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India #N/A
1561 RD1463 Neuromuscular Disorders mtDNA mutation Panel PCR Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  + CLINICAL HISTORY AMBIENT India Viruses have evolved mechanisms enabling them to easily infiltrate the nervous system. Two main methods of viral entry are transneuronal and hematogenous spread. PCR is frequently used to for rapid identification of specific DNA viruses from the CSF, while Reverse transcriptase PCR is commonly used to identify RNA viruses in the CSF. Viral replication tends to peak early and then decline to undetectable levels in CNS infection. PCR assays have a higher incidence of detecting CNS viral infection.
1562 EGEN004 Neuromuscular Disorders Panel 0 0 0 India #N/A
1563 Z048K NEURON SPECIFIC ENOLASE IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India To help diagnose neuroendocrine neoplasms
1564 3328IN NEW NEONATAL SCREENING PANEL(TSH,Phenylalanine & 17-Alpha-Hydroxyprogesterone) ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY DRY BLOOD SPOT with complete CLINICAL HISTORY form including birth date & birth time.(Dried Blood spot should be ideally collected within 3rd and 5th day of life after birth) 2-8°C (14 days) India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders.  ( Thyroid disorders, CAH and PKU)
1565 3358A NEWBORN SCREENING FOR ACYLCARNITINE & AMINO ACIDS MS/MS (Tandem Mass Spectrometry) A. General Information
Collection Time:  Collect sample 24 hours AFTER birth up to 1 month of age.  (DAY 2-7 REPORTED WITHOUT DISCLAIMER , DAY 8 TO 1 MONTH WITH DISCLAIMER COMMENT)
REQUIRE FOLLOWING MADATORY DETAILS:
Birth date and time, Sample collection date and time, Age at the time of collection (more than 24 hours), Transfusion details if any with date and time, IV fluid infusion if any with date and time, Feed details (Breast/Bottle/Both Breast and Bottle feed), Status at the time of collection (Normal/Premature/Sick), Gestational age, Birth weight details, Medication if any.Single baby or Twin baby (please specify),Ethnicity (White/Hispanic/Asian/Am.Indian/Af.Amer/Others),Doctors Name and Contact details + Clinical history of the patient.
B. Sample Acceptability: Special Instructions:
1. Venous blood from a central line is acceptable (Do NOT apply blood to filter paper through a needle as hemolysed samples are not acceptable).
2.  All the requested details on the  Newborn Screen Card should be mentioned properly.

C. Rejection Criteria
1. Samples collected less than 72-96 hours after blood transfusion (if the patient has been transfused with whole blood, wait 72-96 hours before collection of sample).
2. Samples collected while the patient is on Intravenous Fluid (if the patient is on intravenous fluids wait 2 weeks before collection of sample.  If the patient has stopped

Ambient India The aim of newborn screening is to detect diagnostic markers of    treatable disorders in blood spots collected from pre­symptomatic newborns. Early identification of disorders significantly improves long term prognosis of affected patients, minimizes complications, avoids unnecessary diagnostic testing and identifies families for whom pre­natal genetic counselling may be helpful.
1566 3358 NEWBORN SCREENING FOR ACYLCARNITINE & AMINO ACIDS, Dried Blood spot LCMSMS A. General Information
Collection Time:  Collect sample 24 hours AFTER birth up to 1 month of age.  (DAY 2-7 REPORTED WITHOUT DISCLAIMER , DAY 8 TO 1 MONTH WITH DISCLAIMER COMMENT)
REQUIRE FOLLOWING MADATORY DETAILS:
Birth date and time, Sample collection date and time, Age at the time of collection (more than 24 hours), Transfusion details if any with date and time, IV fluid infusion if any with date and time, Feed details (Breast/Bottle/Both Breast and Bottle feed), Status at the time of collection (Normal/Premature/Sick), Gestational age, Birth weight details, Medication if any.Single baby or Twin baby (please specify),Ethnicity (White/Hispanic/Asian/Am.Indian/Af.Amer/Others),Doctors Name and Contact details + Clinical history of the patient.
B. Sample Acceptability: Special Instructions:
1. Venous blood from a central line is acceptable (Do NOT apply blood to filter paper through a needle as hemolysed samples are not acceptable).
2.  All the requested details on the  Newborn Screen Card should be mentioned properly.

C. Rejection Criteria
1. Samples collected less than 72-96 hours after blood transfusion (if the patient has been transfused with whole blood, wait 72-96 hours before collection of sample).
2. Samples collected while the patient is on Intravenous Fluid (if the patient is on intravenous fluids wait 2 weeks before collection of sample.  If the patient has stopped intravenous fluid wait 2 days before collection of sample).
3. Scratched and abraded, contaminated, layered, super-saturated spots, unsaturated spots, samples containing EDTA, samples with plasma rings around them, hemolysed samples.
4.  A baby on IV fluids and on a ventilator is not a good specimen for NBS. Sample should be collected  after oral feeding is established.
5.Samples should not be collected immediately after birth.They should be collected after oral feeding (Breast Feed/ Bottle Feed) is established.
6. Freezing and thawing will cause the red blood cells to burst (hemolysis) and that will affect the results.  So the answer is no, not acceptable for MS/MS screening.

Storage and Shipping Temperature: Allow blood to dry 3 – 4 hrs before packing. Store/Ship the sample in a ZipLock© or equivalent bag at 2° – 8° C. India  The screening process is a diagnostic tool used by qualified physicians to assist them in diagnosis of metabolic disorders.
1567 RD1480 NF1 GENE MUTATION PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY in specified format A India To help diagnose Neurofibromatosis Type 1
1568 9150U NICKEL URINE SPOT GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL  (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India spot test for nickel level in urine
1569 9150U24 NICKEL, 24 HRS URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE).  24 HRS VOLUME SHOULD BE COMPULSARILY SPECIFIED .  FIRST SHAKE THE CAN AND TAKE THE 10-20 ML  ALIQUOT IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) THE MEASUREMENT OF URINE VOLUME SHOULD BE DONE AFTER ALIQUOTING. 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F (>5 -30 DAYS) India To measure nickel level in urine
1570 9132 NICKEL, SERUM BY ICPMS (SERUM) ICPMS SERUM R India To measure the nickel level by serum
1571 8826 NICOTINE METABOLITE,
URINE
CHEMILUMINESCENCE URINE: Collect urine without preservatives ( AGE+GENDER+CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED ) 2-8°C (30 DAYS); F (> 30 DAYS) India To measure nicotine level in urine
1572 8826S NICOTINE METABOLITE, SERUM CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM  ( AGE+GENDER+CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED ) 2-8°C (30 DAYS); F (> 30 DAYS) India To measure nicotine level in blood
1573 2247 NMDA PLUS               (NMDAR + VGKC) IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM/ CSF + CLINICAL HISTORY 2-8°C  / REFRIGERATED India Detection of antibodies to voltage gated potassium channels (VGKC) and NMDAR. To help diagnose immune-mediated encephalitis caused by them.
1574 4910S NMO WITH MOG ANTIBODY PROFILE,SERUM  Immunofluorescence SERUM FROZEN India • Diagnosis of inflammatory demyelinating diseases (IDD) with similar phenotype to neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder (NMOSD), including optic neuritis (single or bilateral) and transverse myelitis
• Diagnosis of autoimmune myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein (MOG)-opathy
• Diagnosis of neuromyelitis optica (NMO)
• Distinguishing NMOSD, acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), optic neuritis, and transverse myelitis from multiple sclerosis early in the course of disease
• Diagnosis of ADEM (acute disseminated encephalomyelitis)
• Prediction of a relapsing disease course
1575 RD1458 NOCARDIA SPECIATION DNA SEQUENCING Pure Culture Isolate A India  This test is designed to identify all known Nocardia species in given pure culture.
1576 1515P NON-GYNAEC CYTOLOGY &
FINE NEEDLE ASPIRATION CYTOLOGY  (FNAC), PHOTO
CYTOLOGY UNSTAINED FNAC SMEARS OR BODY FLUIDS OR ASPIRATES +  SITE OF COLLECTION+ CLINICAL HISTORY &/OR RADIOLOGICAL FINDGS. A-SMEARS
OR
R – FLUIDS /ASPIRATES,
IF FLUID SENT WITHIN 24 HRS.   FOR MORE THAN 24 HRS, MIX EQUAL PROPORTION OF FLUID WITH 50% ALCOHOL
India Aspiration cytology from a variety of organ sites is useful in the determination of pathologic states particularly neoplasms & inflammatory conditions.
1577 7572 NON-INVASIVE PRENATAL SCREENING (NIPS) MPSS-Mass Parallel shotgun Seguencing Whole Blood(Streck cell-free(black/tan tiger top)glass tube  [*2] Room Temperature India For pregnant women, to assess the risk of your developing baby (fetus) having certain chromosome disorders
1578 9953P NORADRENALIN, PLASMA ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY THE BLOOD SAMPLE (EDTA)SHOULD BE STORED AT 2-8 DEGREE CELCIUS UNTIL CENTRIFUGED TO SEPARATE THE PLASMA WITHIN 2HOURS AFTER BLOOD COLLECTION.DO NOT CONSUME VITAMIN B ,COFFEE, BANANAS, ALPHA -METHYDOPA,MOA AND COMT INHIBITORSAS WELL AS MEDICATION RELATED TO HYPERTENSION FOR AT LEAST 72 HRS PRIOR TO THE COLLECTION OF THE SPECIMEN.MENTION CLINICAL DETAILS(PATIENT CLINICAL HISTORY, CT SCAN,USG & MEDICATION) OF THE PATIENT ON THE REQ FORM.. F  FROZEN STRICTLY India To measure the amount of noradrenalin in blood
1579 9953U NORADRENALIN, URINE ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY 24HRS URINE (Preservative:15 – 20ML 6N HCL) . (The patient should not consume Vitamin B, COFFEE AND BANANAS,48hrs prior to the collection of the specimen.It is advisable to discontinue all medications, alpha methyldopa, MAO & COMT Inhibitors as well as medications related to  Hypertension should be discontinued atleast 72 hrs prior to specimen collection.If medications takenshould be  STrictly on the advise of the referring physician, the same should be mentioned.Please freeze the specimen immediately after collection. CLINICAL DETAILS(Patient’s clinical history, CT SCAN , USG & MEDICATION MANDATORY) mention 24 hrs urine volume F  FROZEN STRICTLY India To measure Noradrenalin level in urine
1580 7779 NOR-METANEPHRINE, ELISA, URINE (24 HRS URINE) ELISA 24 Hours Urine. Use 10 ml of 6M HCL as Preservative. Mention 24hrs Urine volume on the TRF. Forward 20.0ml of aliquot from the 24hrs Urine sample in frozen condition.Clinical history is mandatory for timely reporting. F India To help diagnose or rule out a rare tumor of the adrenal gland called a pheochromocytoma or a rare tumor outside the adrenal glands called a paraganglioma; these tumors (PPGL) produce excess catecholamines, which are broken down to metanephrines.
1581 Z027K NP67 (IHC) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India #N/A
1582 7579 NPM1 MUTATION DETECTION PCR – SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY/EDTA BONE MARRAOW A India This assay is useful for the qualitative detection of mutations associated with Acute Myeloid Leukemia.
1583 RD1316 NRAS exon 1 and 2 Mutation NESTED PCR – Sequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Determination of NRAS status plays a role in determining the outcome of therapy in colorectal carcinoma. Absence of NRAS mutation within the tumor suggests that the patient may respond to therapy but other mutations such as EGFR, KRAS etc also play a role.
1584 1702 NSE (NEURON SPECIFIC ENOLASE) ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM (Centrifuge blood within 1 hour) [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy
with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours
following the last biotin administration]
+ Clinical History
 2-8°C (24 HRS); F (3 MONTHS) India This assay is used as a followup marker in patients with NSE secreting tumors of any type. It is an auxillary tool in the diagnosis of Small Cell lung carcinoma (SCLS), Carcinoid tumors,   Islet cell tumors & Neuroblastomas. It also helps in the assessment of comatose patients.
1585 RD1469 O6-methylguanine methyltransferase (MGMT) promoter Pyrosequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED AMBIENT India In patients with Glioblastoma multiforme, a severe type of brain tumor, the methylation state of the MGMT gene determines whether tumor cells would be responsive to temozolomide; if the promoter is methylated, temozolomide is more effective
1586 DT8101 OBEY-CT PANEL I (Glucose F & Glucose PP, T3, T4 & TSH, Triglycerides, Cholesterol, HDL Cholesterol, LDL Cholesterol, VLDL Cholesterol, Cholesterol to HDL Ratio, LDL to HDL Cholesterol Ratio, Creatinine, Total Protein, Electrolytes, Calcium, Phosphorus  & Urine Analysis, Uric acid SPECTROPHOTOMETRY, DIPSTICK & MICROSCOPY/CELL COUNTER/CHEMILUMINESCENCE/IMT SERUM (12-14HRS FASTING), FLUORIDE PLASMA – FASTING & PP, FASTING URINE, EDTA, MICRO SLIDE + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) SERUM 2-8°C (<48 HRS); F (> 48 HRS); FLUORIDE PLASMA : 2-8°C (3 DAYS);  SERUM : 2-8°C (2 DAYS), F (> 2 DAYS); URINE :2-8°C(24 HRS) India #N/A
1587 Z277K OCT-2 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Octamer Binding Transcription Factor 2 (OCT2) is present in all B-cells expressing Ig. The combination of BOB1 and OCT2 stains is helpful in distinguishing between classical Hodgkin lymphoma (at least one marker negative) and nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (both markers expressed). Classical Hodgkin lymphoma stains as BOB1-OCT2+ or BOB1+ OCT2-, while nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL) or diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) stains BOB1+ OCT2+.
1588 1316 OLIGOCLONAL BANDS, CSF ISOELECTRIC FOCUSING WITH IMMUNOFIXATION  CSF & SERUM SAMPLE MUST BE COLLECTED SIMULTANEOUSLY ON SAME DAY AND SAME TIME (FOR PARALLEL TESTING) + (CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY ).  AVOID LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SPECIMEN  2 – 8 °C(1 WEEK), F(1 MONTH) India Oligoclonal bands are present in less than 85% of patients with clinically definite Multiple Sclerosis. Ideally serum and CSF should be tested simultaneously to distinguish between production of oligoclonal bands due to peripheral gammopathy from that due to local production in the CNS. Other conditions which show oligoclonal bands are Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, Inflammatory polyneuropathy, CNS Lupus and Brain tumors.
1589 RD1499 ONCOFOCUS-NEXT Next Generation Sequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED AMBIENT India N/A
1590 3966 ORGANIC ACID SCREEN,URINE Gas Chromatography/Mass spectrometry (GC/MS)-semi quantitative analysis. RANDOM URINE+ CLINICAL DETAILS AND MEDICATION TO BE PROVIDED ALONG WITH THE SPECIMEN. F India The  incidence  of Inborn  errors  of Organic  acid metabolism  is approximately  1 in  3000  live births  but in association  with other  defects  like Amino  acid  & Urea  cycle disorders,  the incidence  is  1  in 1000  live  births. Organic  acidurias can  be  acute  life threatening  illness in  early  infancy or unexplained development delays  in  later childhood.
1591 3550 OSTEOCALCIN (N MID) ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy
with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours
following the last biotin administration]
+ Clinical History
2-8°C (3DAYS);
F (3 MONTHS)
India Osteocalcin is the most important non­collagen protein in bone matrix. It is a marker of bone osteoblastic activity and is considered indicative of bone turnover rather than bone formation. This assay helps in monitoring and assessing effectiveness  of anti­resorptive therapy in patients treated for Osteopenia, Osteoporosis  and Paget’s disease. It  is  also  used as  an  adjunct in the diagnosis of medical conditions associated  with increased  bone turnover like bone metastasis, Primary hyperparathyroidis m  & Renal osteodystrophy.
1592 1060 OSTEOMON (BETA CROSSLAPS & TOTAL P1NP) ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours following the last biotin administration]+ Clinical History FROZEN: UP TO 3 MONTHS India OSTEOPORESIS MONITORING PANEL
1593 Z0150K OSTEONECTIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India To help calssify bone tumors
1594 1059 OSTEOPOROSIS MONITORING (TOTAL P1NP) ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours following the last biotin administration] + Clinical History  2-8°C (5DAYS); F (> 5DAYS- 6 MONTH) India P1NP  is  a marker  of osteoblastic activity  and  is increased  in conditions like Paget’s  disease, Osteoporosis, Primary  / Secondary Hyperparathyroidis m  & Osteomalacia. This  test  is used to  monitor effectiveness  of therapy,  identify noncompliance amongst  patients and  predict fracture risk.
1595 2363 OVA & PARASITE: COCCIDIA EVALUATION STAINING: MICROSCOPY STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER 2-8°C (48 HRS) India To demonstrate coccidia ova or parasite
1596 2362S OVA & PARASITE: COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION WITH COCCIDIA EVALUATION CONCENTRATION; MICROSCOPY; STAINING STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER R India To demonstrate coccidia ova or parasite
1597 7194 OVARIAN MALIGNANCY RISK ALGORITHM (ROMA) CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) SERUM (Note:LMP or Pre or Post Menopausal status Mandatory required) 2-8°C (4 DAYS);  -20°C (>4 DAYS) India Risk  of   Ovarian Malignancy algorithm (ROMA) test  is  used  as an  aid  in assessing  the risk  of  Ovarian cancer  in women with  a  pelvic mass  based  on patient’s  HE4  & CA125  levels  and their menopausal status.  Women with  ROMA levels above  their cutoff  have  an increased  risk  of Ovarian  cancer. ROMA  must  be interpreted  in conjunction  with clinical  & radiological assessment.
1598 Z283K P16 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Aids in the identification of human papilloma virus infectio
1599 Z008K p53  (MUTANT WILD TYPE) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India used as a surrogate for mutational analysis in the diagnostic workup of carcinomas of multiple sites including ovarian cancers.
1600 Z255K p63 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Aids in identifying squamous, urothelial, or myoepithelial differentiation in tumors
1601 RD1462 PAN NEUROTROPIC VIRUS PANEL ( GOLD STANDARD IN DIAGNOSING ASEPTIC MENINGITIS & ENCEPHALITIS Multiplex PCR CSF + CLINICAL HISTORY Frozen India To help diagnose ASEPTIC MENINGITIS & ENCEPHALITIS
1602 3884 Pancreatic Elastase Test(Fecal Elastase) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay STOOL AMBIENT-5 DAYS, 2-8°C (7 DAYS);  -20°C (>7 DAYS) India Pancreatic elastase remains undegraded during intestinal transit,thus reduced concentration in feces reflects exocrine pancreatic insufficiency caused by Chronic Pancreatitis, Diabetes Mellitus,Cholelithiasis, Cystic Fibrosis, Pancreatic Cancer, Celiac disease etc. It may also be used for monitoring patients on treatment for pancreatic insufficiency
1603 Z055K PAN-CYTOKERATIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY) IF  TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India to classify neoplasms of uncertain origin
1604 9602 PANFUNGAL DETECTION & IDENTIFICATION PANEL PCR SEquencing SPUTUM / CSF / FLUIDS / TISSUES + CLINICAL HISTORY A India to detect and identify clinically relevant fungal pathogens using species specific probes.
1605 9603 PANFUNGAL DNA DETECTOR PCR SEquencing SPUTUM / CSF / FLUIDS / TISSUES + CLINICAL HISTORY A India This assay is useful for the detection of fungi as a causative organism of a disease
1606 1479 PAP DUO + HYBRID Diagen DNA Hybrid Capture and CYTOLOGY LBC A India Cervical cancer screening and HPV typing
1607 1822 PAP DUO- SUREPATH  CYTOLOGY+
HPV-PCR
CYTOLOGY/ POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION SPECIMEN FIXED IN THINPREP / SUREPATH PRESERVATIVE  SOLUTION + CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE, LMP 15 – 30 ºC India Cervical cancer screening and HPV typing
1608 9216RFX PAP SMEAR REFLEX TO HPV DETECTION(DNA DETECTOR) CYTOLOGY/ POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION FIXED UNSTAINED SMEARS (FOR PAP)
AND
GENITAL SWABS / CERVICAL SCRAPINGS ON SLIDES
+ CLINICAL HISTORY & AGE & SEX
A India Cervical cancer screening and HPV typing
1609 1272 PAP STAIN CYTOLOGY FIXED UNSTAINED SMEARS  + CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE, LMP A India Screening with Papanicoloau has substantially reduced the mortality rate due to Cervical cancer. Screening guidelines recommend regular PAP testing for all women greater than 21 years of age. At age 30, women who have had 3 normal test results in a row may get screened every 2 to 3 years.Women between 65­70 years with no abnormal results in the previous 10 years can stop screening. Women after Total hysterectomy for non­cancerous causes do not require screening.
1610 1272P PAP STAIN [PHOTO] CYTOLOGY FIXED UNSTAINED SMEARS  + CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE, LMP A India Cervical cancer screening
1611 1564I PARACETAMOL COLORIMETRY 1] Require SERUM sample.Mention time of drug dose.
2] Require Doctors Name and Contact details + Clinical history of the patient is mandatory.
REFRIGERATED India To assess the concentration of Paracetamol
1612 3861 PARANEOPLASTIC DISORDER PROFILE  ( HUABS, YOABS, RI ABS, PNMA2 ABS, AMPHIPHYSIN ABS) IMMUNOBLOT SERUM OR EDTA/HEPARIN/CITRATED PLASMA (CLINICAL HISTORY MANDATORY) 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India This  assay detects  antibodies against neuronal antigens  in Paraneoplastic syndromes.  It  is used  in  the diagnosis of Paraneoplastic neurological autoimmune disorders  related to carcinoma  of lung,  breast, ovary, Thymoma and  Hodgkin lymphoma.
1613 3305 PARVOVIRUS B19 DNA PCR POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION EDTA-PLASMA / WB-EDTA / BONE MARROW EDTA R-WB/BONE MARROW, F-EDTA PLASMA India Parvovirus B19 (B19) is the only member of the family Parvoviridae known to be pathogenic in humans. The virus is widespread, and manifestations of infection vary with the immunologic and hematologic status of the host. Infection with B19 occurs early in life and virus is transmitted by respiratory secretions and occasionally by blood products. Infection in adults is sometimes associated with an acute symmetric polyarthropathy that may mimic Rheumatoid arthritis.
1614 2067I PARVOVIRUS B19 IgG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (5 DAYS); -20°C  (>5 DAYS) India Parvovirus  B19  is the  causative agent of  Fifth disease (Erythema infectiosum) which usually  produces a  mild  illness. The  virus  is  also associated  with Hydrops  fetalis, Aplastic  crises and Arthralgia. Detection  of  IgG antibodies indicates  past infection  or immunity. IgG antibodies  appear soon  after  onset of  illness reaching  peak levels  by  30 days and  may  persist for  years.
1615 2068I PARVOVIRUS B19 IgM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (5 DAYS); -20°C  (>5 DAYS) India Parvovirus  B19  is the  causative agent of  Fifth disease (Erythema infectiosum) which usually  produces a  mild  illness. The  virus  is  also associated  with Hydrops  fetalis, Aplastic  crises and Arthralgia. Detection  of  IgM antibodies indicate recent  infection. The  antibodies appear  soon  after onset  of  illness and peak  within 30  days.
1616 RD1424 PATERNITY TESTING DUO STR Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + BUCCAL SWAB AMBIENT India To establish the probability of paternity of the Child.
1617 RD1425 PATERNITY TESTING TRIO STR Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + BUCCAL SWAB AMBIENT India to help with the classification of genetic variants, including copy number variants.
1618 Z267K PAX-5 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India PAX­5 gene encodes B cell lineage Specific Activator Protein that is expressed in early but not late stages of B cell differentiation.It is used in the diagnosis of B cell Non Hodgkins Lymphomas  & in Hodgkin Lymphoma.
1619 Z270K PAX-8 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Aids in the identification of renal cell carcinomas, as well as papillary thyroid carcinomas and tumors of Mullerian origin
1620 Z010K PCNA (IHC) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India #N/A
1621 4806 PDGFR PLUS (FIP1L1-PDGFRA GENE REARRANGEMENT AND TEL-PDGR BETA T(5;12)  TRANSLOCATION) Nested RT-PCR EDTA WB / BONE MARROW EDTA A India To help investigate the cause of hypereosinophilia (HE), a condition with persistent increase in the number of eosinophils, a specific type of white blood cell, or hypereosinophilic syndrome (HES), which is HE with associated tissue or organ damage; to help determine if someone with HE or HES can be treated with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) such as imatinib. Identifying patients with chronic myelomonocytic leukemia and other hematologic disorders who may be responsive to imatinib mesylate. Identifying and tracking chromosome abnormalities and response to therapy
1622 7749 Penicillium chrysogenum – Specific  IgG ImmunoCAP SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);  -20°C (>1 week) India to determine IgG against Penicillium chrysogenum
1623 Z204 PERIODIC ACID SCHIFF (PAS) STAIN CYTOCHEMISTRY SPECIAL STAINS BONE MARROW SMEAR + PERIPHERIAL SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India to detect glycogen deposits, to demonstrate the thickness of glomerular basement membrane when renal disease is being assessed, is also used to demonstrate hyphae and yeast-forms of fungi in tissue samples. Etc.
1624 1560 PHENOBARBITAL CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM / PLASMA – EDTA , RESULTS FROM SPECIMEN COLLECTED 2 TO 4 HRS AFTER DOSE CAN BE MISLEADING. (TREATMENT HISTORY REQUIRED) 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India Phenobarbitone  is a  CNS suppressant which has  proven  to be  effective  in the control  of Generalized  & Partial  seizures. This  assay  is useful  for monitoring appropriate therapeutic concentration and assessing compliance  or toxicity.
1625 9355 PHENYLKETONURIA (PKU) > 1 MONTH TMS Dried blood spots Ambient India To help diagnose PHENYLKETONURIA
1626 4103 PHENYTOIN (Dilantin) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM / Plasma – EDTA OR HEPARINIZED, Specimen to be collected 4 – 5 hrs after dose.   (Treatment history Required) 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India Phenytoin  is  the drug  of  choice  to treat  and  prevent Tonic­Clonic  & Psychomotor seizures.  This assay  is useful for  monitoring appropriate therapeutic concentration  and assessing compliance for toxicity.
1627 5350 PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME (BCR / abl qualitative) REAL TIME PCR BONE MARROW-EDTA/  WB- EDTA (SPECIMENS TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS) +CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India BCR­ABL is a fusion gene formed by the re­arrangement of breakpoint cluster region (BCR) on chromosome 22 with the ABL protooncogene on chromosome 9 leading to the formation of Philadelphia chromosome. This re­arrangement is seen in almost 95% patients with CML.
1628 5350QN PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME (BCR/abl – quantitative) REAL TIME PCR WB-EDTA/ BONE MARROW-EDTA (SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS)+CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India BCR­ABL is a fusion gene formed by the rearrangement of breakpoint cluster region (BCR) on chromosome 22 with the ABL protooncogene on chromosome 9 leading to the formation of Philadelphia chromosome. This rearrangement is seen in almost 95% patients with CML. The Quantitative assay helps in the management of the disease and monitors effect of therapy.
1629 RD1318 PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME (BCR/ABL BREAKPOINT ANALYSIS) MULTIPLEX RT-PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY A/R – SAMPLE SHOULD REACH WITHIN 48 HRS India  Aids in detection and discrimination of type of BCR-ABL1 fusion transcripts (major, minor and micro).
1630 9892IS PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME (BCR/ABL IS- INTERNATIONAL SCALE) Real time PCR WB-EDTA/BONE MARROW EDTA AMBIENT/ REFRIGERATED India This test detects BCR/ABL p210 translocation (exon 2 or exon 3), and the ABL endogenous control
1631 9892 PHILADELPHIA CHROMOSOME (BCR-abl transcript quantification) REAL TIME PCR WB- EDTA /  BM- EDTA (SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS)+ CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India BCR­ABL is a fusion gene formed by the rearrangement of breakpoint cluster region (BCR) on chromosome 22 with the ABL protooncogene on chromosome 9 leading to the formation of Philadelphia chromosome. This rearrangement is seen in almost 95% patients with CML. The Quantitative assay helps in the management of the disease and monitors effect of therapy.
1632 3260 PIGEON SERUM PROTEIN, FEATHER & DROPPINGS -SPECIFIC IgG ImmunoCAP(FLUOROENZYME IMMUNOASSAY) SERUM 2-8°C (1 week);  -20°C (>1 week) India This assay detects antibodies to Pigeon serum proteins, feathers and droppings.
1633 RD1437 PIK3CA Gene Mutation PCR Sequencing TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED AMBIENT India Mutations in the PIK3CA gene have been identified in carcinomas arising from colon, breast, ovary, liver, stomach, and lung as well as in Glioblastomas. Identification of the mutation helps in risk stratification and classification.
1634 Z222K PIN 4 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India  to help diagnose prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN) and/or prostate carcinoma
1635 Z239 PITITUARY LESION HORMONES (Prolactin, Growth hormone, LH, FSH, ACTH,TSH) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Classification of pituitary tumors
1636 7927 PLA2R1 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India To help diagnose Idiopathic Membranous Nephropathy
1637 Z074K PLACENTAL ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Aids in the identification of germ cell tumors
1638 4332P PLASMA OXALATE SPECTROPHOTOMETERY HEPARIN WHOLE BLOOD  (CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) HEMOLYSED SPECIMEN NOT ACCEPTABLE. 2-8°C India Assessing the body pool size of oxalate.
1639 3216 Plasma RENIN RADIO IMMUNOASSAY PLASMA-EDTA (CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED)(STANDING/ SUPINE) UPRIGHT POSTURE INDUCES A PROMPT ELEVATION IN PLASMA RENIN ACTIVITY BEGINNING IN 15MINUTES AND PEAKING BETWEEN 60 &120 MINUTES FROZEN: UP TO 2 WEEKS India Renin  is  a proteolytic enzyme  released from juxtaglomerular cells  of  the kidney. The enzyme  cleaves a  substrate  to produce Angiotensin  I which  in  turn produces Angiotensin  II. This metabolite plays  a  key  role in  various forms of  hypertension. Increased  levels are  seen  in Renal hypertension, Addison’s  disease and  Secondary hypoaldosteronism .  Low  levels  are detected  in Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronis m  and  Primary aldosteronism.
1640 4069 PLASMA VERY LONG CHAIN FATTY ACIDS Stable isotope dilution Gas Chromatography Mass spectrometry HEPARIN PLASMA FROZEN India To help diagnose X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy (X-ALD) and other peroxisomal disorders.
1641 RD1432 Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor-1 (PAI-1) / SERPINE-1, 4G/5G Genotyping PCR Sequencing WHOLE BLOOD EDTA AMBIENT India Genetically, Rett syndrome (RTT) is caused by mutations in the gene MECP2 located on the X chromosome (which is involved in transcriptional silencing and epigenetic regulation of methylated DNA), and can arise sporadically or from germline mutations. In less than 10% of RTT cases, mutations in the genes CDKL5 or FOXG1 have also been found to resemble it. Rett syndrome is initially diagnosed by clinical observation, but the diagnosis is definitive when there is a genetic defect in the MECP2 gene.
1642 5115 PLATELET ANTIBODIES (SERUM,IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE) IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE SERUM R/F India To help diagnose ITP
1643 9905 PML Ra Ra t(15:17), QUALITATIVE REAL TIME PCR WB-EDTA / BONE MARROW (SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS)+CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India Vast  majority  of cases  of  Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) have a translocation t(15;17)(q22;q12­2 1) which fuses  the Promyelocytic gene  (PML)  on chromosome band  15q22  to the  Retinoic acid receptor  alpha (RARA)  gene  at 17q12­21.  This PML  /  RARA fusion  is associated  with  a good  response to  all­ transretinoic  acid therapy.
1644 9906 PML Ra Ra t(15:17), QUANTITATIVE REAL TIME PCR WB-EDTA / BONE MARROW (SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS)+CLINICAL HISTORY A/R India Vast  majority  of cases  of  Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) have a translocation t(15;17)(q22;q12­2 1) which fuses  the Promyelocytic gene  (PML)  on chromosome band  15q22  to the  Retinoic acid receptor  alpha (RARA)  gene  at 17q12­21. This assay is useful for montoring patients in which t(15;17) (q22;q12) has been detected.
1645 Z265K PMS2 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ Site of biopsy and Clinical details MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Evaluation of tumor tissue to identify patients at risk for having hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer/Lynch syndrome
1646 7745S PNEUMOCYSTIS CARINII DETECTION SPECIAL STAINS: MICROSCOPY SPUTUM / BAL RESPIRATORY FLUIDS A/R/F India To help diagnose infection caused by PNEUMOCYSTIS CARINII
1647 1672 PNH (CD55 and CD59) FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA WB + CLINICAL HISTORY A India To help diagnose PNH
1648 7669 PNH TEST ON WHITE BLOOD CELLS
[ANTI-CD45, CD14, CD15, CD24 AND CD64 ANTIBODIES, AND FLUOROSCENT AEROLYSIN (FLAER)]
Flow Cytometry BLOOD (EDTA) + CLINICAL HISTORY Ambient (25 Degree Celcius) India To help diagnose PNH
1649 9219RFX POC FISH REFLEX TO POC KARYOTYPING FISH OR CYTOGENETICS IST TRIMESTER: CHORIONIC VILLI; 2ND OR IIIRD TRIMESTER: PLACENTAL VILLI. PLEASE SEND CLINICAL HISTORY  IN SPECIFIED FORMAT-
CHORIONIC VILLI
OR HEART BLOOD
OR CORD BLOOD
IF NONE OF THESE ARE AVAILABLE, THEN A SMALL PIECE OF FOETAL SKIN (THIGH, STOMACH, ARMS)
FOR CHROMOSOMAL ANALYSIS/FISH
Don’t send full fetus ti the dept.
A/R India To identify structural chromosome abnormality
1650 4899 POLLUTION ALLERGY PANEL ImmunoCAP Specific IgE  inhouse allergen SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs), F (>48 hrs) India To help diagnose cause of allergy
1651 1652 PORPHOBILINOGEN QUANTITATIVE URINE, 24 HRS ION EXCHANGE CHROMATOGRAPHY /SPECTROPHOTOMETRY URINE -24 HOURS WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION. TO BE PROTECT FROM LIGHT, THE URINE SPECIMEN NEEDS TO BE COLLECTED IN A DARKED COLOURED BOTTLE. ( MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS);  F (1 MONTH) India Urinary porphobilinogen is the first step in the  diagnosis  of Acute  intermittent porphyria.  An acute  attack usually leads  to gastrointestinal disturbance  and neuropsychiatric disorders.
1652 1653 PORPHOBILINOGEN QUANTITATIVE URINE, Random ION EXCHANGE CHROMATOGRAPHY /SPECTROPHOTOMETRY RANDOM URINE  WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION.TO BE PROTECT FROM LIGHT, THE URINE SPECIMEN NEEDS TO BE COLLECTED IN A DARKED COLOURED BOTTLE. ( PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS);  F (1 MONTH) India Elevated values of VMA along with other catecholamine metabolites are suggestive of catecholamine secreting tumor like Neuroblastoma, Pheochromocytom a and other Neural crest tumors. VMA levels may also be useful in monitoring patients who are also treated. Elevated levels are suggestive of Pheochromocytoma but not diagnostic.
1653 4170 PORPHOBILINOGEN, URINE CHEMICAL ANALYSIS RANDOM URINE WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE TO PROTECT FROM LIGHT, THE URINE SPECIMEN NEEDS TO BE COLLECTED IN A DARK  COLOURED BOTTLE. (PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY DETAILS.) (PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY DETAILS.) 2-8°C (7 DAYS);  F (> 7 DAYS) India To help diagnose porphyrias
1654 9999 PORPHYRINS SPECIATION, 24HRS URINE HPLC 24HRS URINE  (NO PRESERVATIVE).COLLECT 24HRS URINE SAMPLE IN BROWN BOTTLE. COURIER THE 25ML OF 24HRS URINE ALIQUOT IN DARK BROWN CONTAINER.MENTION 24HRS URINE VOLUME ON THE REQUISITION FORM. DOCTORS NAME AND CONTACT DETAILS REQUIRED. F India Porphyrias  are  a diverse  group  of disorders characterized  by accumulation of porphyrins  & porphyrinogen. This assay  is used  in  the differential diagnosis  of Porphyrias.  It  is a preferred  test during symptomatic period for  Acute intermittent porphyria, Hereditary coproporphyria  & Variegate porphyria.
1655 4516 PORPHYRINS, 24HRS URINE ION EXCHANGE CHROMATOGRAPHY /SPECTROPHOTOMETRY URINE -24 HOURS WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION. TO BE PROTECT FROM LIGHT, THE URINE SPECIMEN NEEDS TO BE COLLECTED IN A DARKED COLOURED BOTTLE. ( MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (4 DAYS);  F (1 MONTH) India To help diagnose and sometimes to monitor porphyrias
1656 1550 PREALBUMIN NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India  To help detect protein-calorie malnutrition and to monitor the effectiveness of parenteral (for example, intravenous) nutrition.
1657 1299 PRE-ECLA ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE Serum sample should be collected on Gestational Age
> 20 weeks or in between
> 20 to 37 weeks – Mandatory.
SERUM in 2 vials
(Clinical Details in specified format, Maternal Date of Birth, Maternal Weight, Latest Obstetric USG Report ) Mandatory
SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours following the last biotin administration]
2-8°C (2 DAYS);
F (> 2 DAYS)
India To determine the risk of pre-eclampsia
1658 3300 PREGNANCY ASSOCIATED Plasma PROTEIN-A (PAPP-A) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM (Clinical Details ); LMP date required 2-8°C (24 HRS); F (2 Months) India For pregnant women, to assess the risk of your baby having a chromosome disorder, such as Down syndrome (trisomy 21) or Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)
1659 RD1492 PRENAT-NEXT Next Generation Sequencing WHOLE BLOOD IN STRECK TUBES + CLINICAL/RISK HISTORY WITH APPROPRIATE DOCUMENTATION. CONTACT LAB FOR DETAILS ON DOCUMENTATION REQUIRED Ambient India To identify structural chromosome abnormality
1660 5067 PRENAT-NGS (PRENATAL SCREENING–NEXT GENERATION) Next Generation Sequencing WHOLE BLOOD IN STRECK TUBES + CLINICAL/RISK HISTORY WITH APPROPRIATE DOCUMENTATION. CONTACT LAB FOR DETAILS ON DOCUMENTATION REQUIRED Ambient India To identify structural chromosome abnormality
1661 1297 PRENAT-SCREEN ELECTROCHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM in 2 vials (Clinical Details in specified format, Maternal TRF [Height, B.P. (Right & Left arm), Uterine arterial pressure: Pulsatility Index (Righ & Left) – Mandatory]. Obstetric USG Report between 10 to 13 weeks of gestation+Date of collection) along with patient specifications Mandatory
SERUM [Samples should not be taken from patients receiving therapy with high biotin doses (i.e. > 5 mg/day) until at least 8 hours following the last biotin administration]
2-8°C (2 DAYS);
F (> 2 DAYS)
India to find out if the fetus might have a genetic birth defect
1662 3898 PRE-OP ROUTINE COAGULATION PROFILE (PT, APTT, Platelet Count, Factor XIII Activity) CLOT BASED / AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER / MICROSCOPY / CLOT SOLUBILITY FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C + *(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* WHOLE BLOOD EDTA + BLOOD SMEAR F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) +A India Routine test for couagulation abnormalities/ preoperative coagulation profile
1663 MGEN008 Primary Hyperoxaluria Gene Panel 0 0 0 India #N/A
1664 Z002K PROGESTERONE RECEPTOR (PgR) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Guiding decisions on hormonal therapy in patients with breast carcinomas
1665 Z165K PROLACTIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Subclassification of pituitary adenomas
1666 1539 PROSTATE SEXTANT
BIOPSY
HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN
Clinical details and PSA
Levels required.  .
A India To help diagnose prostatic lesions
1667 Z041K PROSTATE SPECIFIC ANTIGEN (PSA) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Marker of glandular epithelium in normal and neoplastic prostate
1668 3547 PROSTATE SPECIFIC ANTIGEN (PSA) FREE & TOTAL CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM (AGE+SEX+ CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED) DO NOT SCHEDULE ANY PROSTATIC EXAMINATION / INSTRUMENTATION ATLEAST FOR 3 DAYS BEFORE BLOOD TEST IS PERFORMED. 2-8°C (24 hrs); F (3 Months) India This  assay  aids in  the  early detection of Prostate  cancer in  males   50 years or  older with  Total  PSA values  between 4.0  and  10.0 ng/mL  and nonsuspicious digital rectal examination. It also discriminates between  Prostate cancer  and Benign  Prostatic disease.  Patients with benign conditions  have  a higher proportion of  Free  PSA compared  with Prostate  cancer.
1669 3836 PROTEIN C ACTIVITY CLOT BASED FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* 2 VIALS-  AT MINUS 20° C(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + CLINICAL HISTORY F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India This  assay  should  be  used as  the initial  test for  evaluating patients suspected of  Congenital Protein  C deficiency including those with family history of  thrombotic events.  It  also helps  to  identify decreased Functional Protein C  of  acquired origin  e.g.  due  to oral  anticoagulant effect, Vitamin  K deficiency, Liver disease or DIC.
1670 7164 PROTEIN C ANTIGEN(CITRATED PLASMA, ELFA) ELFA Platelet Poor Citrated plasma FROZEN India To help diagnose vitamin K deficiency, oral anticoagulation with coumarin compound, liver disease, DIC and other disorders.
1671 9201RFXM PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS REFLEX TO IMMUNOFIXATION CAPILLARY ELECTROPHORESIS +IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM (LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED) + (CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 DAYS) India #N/A
1672 1580C PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS, CSF ELECTROPHORESIS CSF + (CLINICAL HISTORY, AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY ). 2-8°C (7 DAYS) India Protein electrophoresis evaluates  the major  protein fractions  and determines  if there are deficiencies or excesses as seen with Macroglobulinemia and Multiple Myloma. Immunofixation is useful  in characterising  M components.
1673 1580M PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS, SERUM CAPILLARY ELECTROPHORESIS 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM (LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED) + (CLINICAL HISTORY + AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (10 DAYS) India To help diagnose or monitor conditions that result in abnormal protein production or loss of protein
1674 1580U PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS, URINE ELECTROPHORESIS URINE -24 HOURS WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE &  REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION) + MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY DETAILS. 2-8°C (7 DAYS) India Protein electrophoresis evaluates  the presence  of monoclonal gammopathy & renal  damage  in urine.
1675 9201RFXU PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS, URINE REFLEX TO IMMUNOFIXATION  ELECTROPHORESIS, URINE  ELECTROPHORESIS +IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS URINE -24 HOURS WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE &  REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION) + MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY DETAILS. 2-8°C (7 DAYS) India To help diagnose or monitor conditions that result in abnormal protein production or loss of protein.
1676 3837 PROTEIN S ACTIVITY CLOT BASED FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* 2 VIALS-  AT MINUS 20° C(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + CLINICAL HISTORY F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India This  assay  is used  as  an adjunct  to initial testing  based  on the  results  of Protein  S  antigen assay.  It  helps in
1677 1744 PSEUDOCHOLINESTERASE SPECTOPHOTOMETRY SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C(2 DAYS); F (>2 DAYS) India Cholinesterase / Pseudocholinester ase assay is useful for monitoring exposure to Organophosphoru s insecticides. It also monitors patients with liver disease particularly those undergoing liver transplantation. However normal values are seen in Chronic hepatitis, mild Cirrhosis & Obstructive jaundice.
1678 RD1310RFX PV Jak2 Reflex Panel PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY in specified format A India To detect mutation in Jak2
1679 DT3101 PYRO-DETECT ( CBC, MP(Smear), MP antigen, ESR, CRP, Urinalysis, Stool Routine, WIDAL, Hepatic Profile, Blood Culture Preliminary & Final) AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER, MICROSCOPY  OF STAINED SMEAR, ,ENZYME CHROMATOGRAPHY, MODIFIED WESTERGREN,SPECTROPHOTOMETRY,NEPHELOMETRY,  DIPSTICK & MICROSCOPY, AGGLUTINATION, BACTERIAL CULTURE & BIOCHEMICAL IDENTIFICATION REACTIONS, BACTERIAL WB-EDTA, PERIPHERAL BLOOD SMEARS HEPARIN WB/WHOLE BLOOD SPS, SERUM 10-12 HRS FASTING, URINE,  STOOL (ESR ON SITE) + (AGE & GENDER  IS MANDATORY) EDTA WB :A          A   R URINE   2-8°C(24 HRS) ,  SERUM  2-8°C (2 DAYS); F (> 2 DAYS) India To determine the cause of pyrexia of unknown origin
1680 5062 PYRUVATE, SERUM Enzymatic Serum Frozen India Screening for possible disorders of mitochondrial metabolism
1681 4199 QUANTITATIVE D-DIMER Immunoturbidometry Plasma Citrate Frozen India This assay is useful in the diagnosis of intravascular coagulation and fibrinolysis / DIC. It also has negative predictive value in excluding the diagnosis of Pulmonary embolism or Deep vein Thrombosis particularly when this assay is combined with clinical information. D­Dimer levels are increased in DIC / Intravascular coagulation, recent bleeding, hematoma,trauma, surgical operation and thromboembolism. High levels may also be seen in liver disease and malignancy.
1682 4635M RA TOTAL-(Anti-CCP,ANA,CRP(Quantitative),Rheumatoid factor quantitative) NEPHELOMETRY/CMIA/EIA SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) R/ FOR CRP & ASO 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (3 MONTHS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS OF COLLECTION). India Rheumatoid arthritis  (RA)  is  a chronic inflammatory disease of unknown etiology marked  by  a symmetric, peripheral polyarthritis. Serum antibodies to Cyclic citrullinated peptides (Anti CCP) are now recognised to be a valuable marker of diagnostic and prognostic significance. ANA’s occur both in systemic and organ specific autoimmune diseases showing positivity in Rheumatoid arthritis. There is incremental value in testing for presence of both Rheumatoid factor (RF) and Anti CCP as some patients with RA are positive for RF but negative for Anti CCP and vice versa.
1683 2333 RAAS SCREENING PANEL (Plasma Renin, Aldosterone) RADIO IMMUNOASSAY PLASMA-EDTA  & SERUM (CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED) (STANDING/ SUPINE) UPRIGHT POSTURE INDUCES A PROMPT ELEVATION IN PLASMA RENIN ACTIVITY BEGINNING IN 15MINUTES AND PEAKING BETWEEN 60 &120 MINUTES FROZEN: UP TO 2 WEEKS India This ratio can be used as a screening test in cases of severe hypertension. The ratio allows detection of cases of Primary Aldosteronism in normokalemic patients.
1684 7664R RAPID FILARIA ANTIGEN DETECTION IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY SERUM/PLASMA HEPARIN 2-8°C (3 days)>3 days -20°C India Filariasis is a disease resulting from parasitization by thread like of filiform worms called filariae. The embryos circulate in lymphatic tissues and blood as microfilaria leading to Lymphangitis, Lymphadenitis, Elephantiasis and Tropical eosinophilia.
1685 3523 RBC FOLATE CHEMILUMINESCENCE 2 TUBES OF WB-EDTA+CLINICAL HISTORY ONE EDTA BLOOD SAMPLE TO BE KEPT AT 2-8°C ONLY , FOR SECOND EDTA SAMPLE 2-8°C (24 HRS) AND F (>24 HOURS) India Serum folate concentrations are affected by diet whereas RBC folate is a more reliable indicator of folate status. This assay is useful for identification of folate deficiency when serum folate is normal but there is a high clinical suspicion of nutritional deficiency. It is used in the evaluation of individuals with low serum levels of both folate and iron.
1686 8881 RECIPIENT ANTIBODY STATUS (POS/NEG)(PRA SCREEN) LUMINEX BASED RECIPIENT SERUM IN PLAIN VIAL Cold India Test is a qualitative test to find out patient’s sensitization against anti-HLA antibodies through previous transplants, transfusions, infections and pregnancy.  Test is used for regular follow up of patients waiting for solid organ transplantation and also for post transplant follow up.
1687 1253AM RECURRENT MISCARRIAGE PANEL (Protein C, Protein S, Lupus Antigoagulent, Antiphospholipid Antibody, Serum Homocystein, Anti Thrombin  III Activity)   [To be ordered with Factor V leiden (# 9894) if required ] which will be charged separately CLOT BASED / CHEMILUMINESCENCE/CHROMOGENIC ASSAY/ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY FASTING SERUM /PLASMA (Centrfuge samples and remove SERUM or plasma from red blood cells as soon as possible to ensure accurate measurement.) AND  CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* 2 VIALS-  AT MINUS 20° C(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA) + CLINICAL HISTORY HOMOCYSTEINE:2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs)A/R/F AND F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India To determine the cause of recurrent miscarriage
1688 2365 REDUCING SUBSTANCES, STOOL QUALITATIVE CHEMICAL ANALYSIS STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER A / R India To help diagnose lactose intolerance (and some rare metabolic abnormalities)
1689 RD1441 RET GENE MUTATIONS PCR SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD A India Genetically, Rett syndrome (RTT) is caused by mutations in the gene MECP2 located on the X chromosome (which is involved in transcriptional silencing and epigenetic regulation of methylated DNA), and can arise sporadically or from germline mutations. In less than 10% of RTT cases, mutations in the genes CDKL5 or FOXG1 have also been found to resemble it. Rett syndrome is initially diagnosed by clinical observation, but the diagnosis is definitive when there is a genetic defect in the MECP2 gene.
1690 4520 RETINOL BINDING PROTEIN (RBP) NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India This  assay  is useful  for diagnosing Vitamin A deficiency & toxicity and for monitoring therapy.  It evaluates  persons with  intestinal malabsorption  of lipids. Vitamin A deficiency can leads to blindness whereas  chronic intoxication can affect  several organs.  Known  HIV positive patients  with Vitamin A deficiency show increased disease progression  and mortality.
1691 1500R RETURN OF PARAFFIN BLOCK / SLIDE HISTOPATHOLOGY BLOCK/ SLIDE A India N/A
1692 5008 RHEUMATOID ARTHARITIS PANEL (ANA, RHEUMATOID FACTOR, ANTI CCP) NEPHELOMETRY 12 -14 HRS FASTING SERUM (LIPEMIC SAMPLE SHOULD BE AVOIDED) + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Rheumatoid arthritis  (RA)  is  a chronic inflammatory disease of unknown etiology marked  by  a symmetric, peripheral polyarthritis. Serum antibodies to Cyclic citrullinated peptides (Anti CCP) are now recognised to be a valuable marker of diagnostic and prognostic significance. ANA’s occur both in systemic and organ specific autoimmune diseases showing positivity in Rheumatoid arthritis. There is incremental value in testing for presence of both Rheumatoid factor (RF) and Anti CCP as some patients with RA are positive for RF but negative for Anti CCP and vice versa.
1693 1074 RHEUMATOLOGY PROFILE – 1 (Rheumatology Profile – 2, DSDNA TITRE) IMMUNOBLOT / FARR RADIOBINDING ASSAY SERUM IN 2 VIALS 1  AMBIENT+ 1 REFRIGERATED A/R/F India To help diagnose SLE.
1694 1075 RHEUMATOLOGY PROFILE – 2 (SM ABS, U1SNRNP ABS, SS-A ABS, SS-B ABS) IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India Rheumatoid arthritis  (RA)  is  a chronic inflammatory disease of unknown etiology marked  by  a symmetric, peripheral polyarthritis. Being  a  systemic disease,  RA  can result  in  a  variety of extra­articular manifestations. ANA’s occur  both in  systemic  and organ specific autoimmune disease showing positivity  in Rheumatoid arthritis, Scleroderma, Sjogren’s syndrome, Mixed connective  tissue disease  and CREST syndrome.
1695 5017 RICKETSSIA PCR Real Time PCR EDTA Whole Blood. Specimen should reach SRL,Mumbai preferably within 24hrs of collection. REFRIGERATED India To help diagnose a infection caused by Ricketssia
1696 4637A RMP TOTAL (Protein C Activity, FREE PROTEIN S, LUPUS ANTICOAGULANT Factor VIII SCREENING PROFILE, HOMOCYSTEINE, Antithrombin III activity, Anticardiolipin antibody, Factor V Leiden, ANTI ß2 GLYCOPROTEIN 1 IGM/ IGG, FACTOR VIII ACTIVITY) CLOT BASED/ CHEMILUMINESCENCE/ CHROMOGENIC ASSAY/ ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY/ PCR SEQUENCING FASTING SERUM, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C *(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + CLINICAL HISTORY+ EDTA WHOLE BLOOD FROZEN (To be F immediately at -20°C & transported in dry ice) India To assess coagulation abnormalities
1697 4571 ROS-1 GENE REARRANGEMENT BY FISH FISH BLOCKS.PLEASE PROVIDE THE HISTOPATHOLOGY REPORT AND CLINICAL HISTORY  ALONG WITH THE BLOCKS. AMBIENT India The c­ros oncogene 1 (ROS1), originally described in Glioblastomas, has been identified as a potential relevant therapeutic target in lung Adenocarcinoma. Crizotinib has shown in vitro activity and early evidence of clinical activity in ROS1­rearrang ed tumors. FISH is better­suited than molecular testing to detect the spectrum of variants of ROS1 gene. It has seven chromosomesdescribed so far in Non­Small Cell Lung Carcinoma (NSCLC). While molecular assays must be designed to individual and unique fusions, FISH detection encompasses all described and as­yet undescribed rearrangements.
1698 Z225 ROUND CELL TUMOURS (ADULTS) – 2 (HMB45, MPO, S-100P) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Classification of round cell tumors
1699 1478 RPL (RECURRENT PREGNENCY LOSS PANEL) PANEL CELL CULTURE FOR CHROMOSOMAL ANALYSIS, CLOT BASED & ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY FASTING, CITRATED  PLASMA –  AT MINUS 20° C + SERUM, WB- HEPARIN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY*(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA) F/A/A/A India To determine the cause of recurrent pregnancy loss
1700 3963 RSV-Respiratory Syncytial Virus IgG(Serum,EIA) Immunofluorescence SERUM R/F India RSV causes an Influenza like illness which is severe in infants, young children and older adults. It is the most common cause of Bronchiolitis & pneumoniae in children below 1 year of age.
1701 3964 RSV-RESPIRATORY SYNCYTIAL VIRUS -IGM (SERUM,EIA) Immunofluorescence SERUM R/F India To help diagnose a infection caused by RESPIRATORY SYNCYTIAL VIRUS
1702 9434 RUBELLA IGG AVIDITY Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (4 DAYS); -20°C  (>4 DAYS) India Avidity  test  helps in  discriminating primary  infection &  reinfection.   Avidity indices less  than  30%  is an  indication of current  infection.
1703 9217RFX RUBELLA IGM / IGG +VE REFLEX RUBELLA RNA PCR Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay + NESTED REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE PCR SERUM + EDTA PLASMA / CSF / AMNIOTIC FLUID   NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB A/R/F + F India To help diagnose a infection caused by Rubella
1704 9415 RUBELLA RNA PCR NESTED REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE PCR EDTA PLASMA / CSF / AMNIOTIC FLUID / NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB F India This assay detects the presence of Rubella virus in the sample provided
1705 Z061K S-100 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Aids in the identification of various neoplasms. S-100 expression is seen in cartilaginous tumors, myoepithelial tumors, Schwann cells and neural tumors, Langerhans cell proliferations, benign and malignant melanocytes, clear cell sarcoma, and some carcinomas
1706 Z217K S-100 PROTEIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Aids in the identification of various neoplasms. S-100 expression is seen in cartilaginous tumors, myoepithelial tumors, Schwann cells and neural tumors, Langerhans cell proliferations, benign and malignant melanocytes, clear cell sarcoma, and some carcinomas.
1707 9442 SALICYLATE SPECTOPHOTOMETRY SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C(2 WEEKS); F (6 MONTHS) India To measure the concentration in the blood, to detect and/or monitor an overdose (salicylate poisoning)
1708 RD1412 SCA 1 (SPINAL CEREBRAL ATAXIA TYPE-1) PCR – FRAGMENT ANALYSIS EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India To detect  CAG trinucleotide repeats in the SCA1 (ATXN1) gene.
1709 4593 SCA PANEL (SCA TYPE -1,12,2,3,6)  PCR/ Fragment Analysis EDTA WHOLE BLOOD A India To help diagnose types of Spinocerebellar ataxia
1710 1235 Scl-70 IgG ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India Scl­70  antibodies are  considered  to be specific for Scleroderma and are found in nearly  60%  of these  patients. They are  more common  in patients  with extensive cutaneous involvement  and Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis and their presence is  a  poor prognostic indicator.
1711 5003 SCLERODERMA DIAGNOSTIC PANEL (ANA,U1 Sm RNP,CENTROMERE ABS,SCLERODERMA -70 IgG IFA/IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (3 DAYS);                       -20°C (>3 DAYS OR SHIPPED) FOR ANA India Antibodies  to Scl­70  (DNA topoisomerase  I) are  detected  in nearly 75% patients  with Progressive Systemic Sclerosis (PSS).  Patients of  Scleroderma with  Scl­70 antibody  positivity are  associated with  diffuse cutaneous involvement, increased frequency  of pulmonary fibrosis and high mortality Centromere antibodies  are most  often associated  with lower  frequency of pulmonary fibrosis and mortality although an  increased  risk for  pulmonary hypertension  has been  observed.
1712 1739 Scrub Typhus Antibody Immunochromatograpy SERUM/PLASMA (Heparin/ EDTA/ Sodium citrate) 2-8°C (3 DAYS);       -20°C (>3 DAYS) India To help diagnose a infection caused by Scrub Typhus
1713 1739E Scrub Typhus IgM Antibody Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (48 HRS); -20°C >48 HRS) India To help diagnose a infection caused by Scrub Typhus
1714 7153 SdLDL; SMALL DENSE LDL SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM-12-14 HRS FASTING (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) F India LDL Cholesterol circulates as large buoyant (pattern A), intermediate & dense particles (pattern B). Compared to individuals with pattern A, individuals with pattern B have an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases and may respond more favourably to lipid lowering therapy.
1715 9140U SELENIUM URINE SPOT GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN  STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL  (10-20 ml)  VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F ( >5 – 30 DAYS) India Selenium  is  an essential  element found in  many over  the  counter vitamin preparations because  its anti­oxidant activity  is  thought to  be anti­carcinogenic. Selenium deficiency targets cardiac  muscle leading  to Cardiomyopathy. This  assay  is useful  for monitoring Selenium replacement therapy  specially patients  with  no functional  bowel, on parenteral selenium supplementation. Urine  quantitation helps  to  assess clearance of Selenium.
1716 9140U24 SELENIUM, 24 HRS URINE GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE)  ALIQUOT. IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL AVAILABLE OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F ( >5 – 30 DAYS) India Selenium  is  an essential  element found in  many over  the  counter vitamin preparations because  its anti­oxidant activity  is  thought to  be anti­carcinogenic. Selenium deficiency targets cardiac  muscle leading  to Cardiomyopathy. This  assay  is useful for monitoring Selenium replacement therapy  specially patients  with  no functional  bowel, on  parenteral selenium supplementation. Urine  quantitation helps  to  assess clearance  of Selenium.
1717 9140 SELENIUM, BLOOD GFAAS WITH ZEEMAN CORRECTION IMPROVE/BD, SRL EDTA VACCUTAINER, WHOLE BLOOD 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F ( >7 – 30 DAYS) India Selenium  is  an essential  element found in  many over  the  counter vitamin preparations because  its anti­oxidant activity  is  thought to  be anti­carcinogenic. Selenium deficiency targets cardiac  muscle leading  to Cardiomyopathy. This  assay  is useful for monitoring Selenium replacement therapy  specially patients  with  no functional  bowel, on  parenteral selenium supplementation.
1718 9140S SELENIUM, SERUM ICPMS BD RED TOP VACCUTAINER AVAILABLE FROM SRL MUMBAI, CENTRIFUGE, SEPARATE SERUM IN MULTIPURPOSE VIAL AVAILABLE FROM SRL MUMBAI, PERCOLATE,  DO NOT USE PIPETE 2-8°C (7DAYS); FROZEN (>7 -30 DAYS) India To screen for deficiency / toxicity due to selenium
1719 RD1474 SEPSISCREEN PCR-Sequencing (CSF, BAL, AF, PF, Aspirates & Tissue Biopsy) AMBIENT India To help diagnose sepsis
1720 7690 SEROTONIN ELISA SERUM FROZEN India Serotonin concentrations are  increased in patients  with Carcinoid syndrome. Carcinoid  tumors are  associated with Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) types  I  &  II. These  tumors  are associated with flushing, diarrhoea, pain and  other symptoms.
1721 7690U SEROTONIN ,5-HYDROXY TRYPTAMINE URINE ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY Spot Urine or 24 hr urine (no preservative). Mention 24 hrs urine volume on the test requisition form. Specimens should be strictly sent in frozen condition. FROZEN STRICTLY India The diagnosis of a small subgroup of carcinoid tumors that produce predominately 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP), but very little serotonin and chromogranin A. Follow-up of patients with known or treated carcinoid tumors that produce predominately 5-HTP, but very little serotonin and chromogranin A
1722 1732 SERUM FREE LIGHT CHAIN (Free Light Chain Kappa, Free Light Chain Lambda, Kappa/Lambda Ratio) NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (21 DAYS) India To help detect, diagnose, and monitor plasma cell disorders (dyscrasias) such as multiple myeloma, primary amyloidosis, and related diseases or to monitor the effectiveness of treatment
1723 8034 SERUM LIPOPROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS  ELECTROPHORESIS FASTING SERUM STRICTLY REFRIGERATED India To determine abnormal distribution and concentration of lipoproteins in the serum
1724 3218 SEX HORMONE BINDING GLOBULIN (SHBG) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY (AGE/GENDER) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (2 Months) India This  assay  is useful  for diagnosis  and followup  of women  with signs  and symptoms  of androgen  excess like Polycystic ovarian  syndrome and Idiopathic hirsutism.  It  is  an adjunct  in monitoring  sex steroid  and anti­androgen therapy,  diagnosis of disorders  of puberty  / Thyrotoxicosis and diagnosis  & followup  of Anorexia nervosa.
1725 2488 SICKLE CELL DNA PCR PCR  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD +  CLINICAL HISTORY A India The genetic disorder is due to the mutation of a single nucleotide, from a GAG to GTG codon on the coding strand. In people heterozygous for HgbS (carriers of sickling haemoglobin), the polymerisation problems are minor, because the normal allele is able to produce over 50% of the haemoglobin. In people homozygous for HgbS, the presence of long­chain polymers of HbS distort the shape of the red blood cell from a smooth doughnut­like shape to ragged and full of spikes, making it fragile and susceptible to breaking within capillaries
1726 2489 SICKLE CELL DNA PCR PND PCR AMNIOTIC FLUID (2-8 °C) (A) / CVS IN STERILE SALINE / FETAL BLOOD EDTA & WB-EDTA FOR BOTH PARENTS  MANDATORY +  CLINICAL HISTORY AMNIOTIC FLUID/ CVS AT 2-8 °C,REST AMBIENT India This assay is useful for the detection of GAG to GTG mutation in amniotic fluid/CVS of the fetus for determining the status of the mutation
1727 2486 SICKLE SHORT PROGRAM SICKLE CELL VARIANT ANALYSIS, BLOOD SPOT HPLC 3-4 DRIED BLOOD SPOT A India To help diagnose sickle cell variant
1728 8884 SINGLE ANTIGEN BEAD CLASS I (ABC LOCI) LUMINEX BASED RECIPIENT SERUM IN PLAIN VIAL Cold India To detect anti HLA IgG antibodies in the patient and allow for a precise, highly sensitive determination of a patient’s antibody profile.
1729 8885 SINGLE ANTIGEN BEAD CLASS II (DR ,DQ & DP LOCI) LUMINEX BASED RECIPIENT SERUM IN PLAIN VIAL Cold India To detect anti HLA IgG antibodies in the patient and allow for a precise, highly sensitive determination of a patient’s antibody profile
1730 7166 SIROLIMUS, EDTA/HEPARIN WHOLE BLOOD LCMSMS 1] Require EDTA/Heparin Whole Blood to be collected directly in relevant vaccutainers only, [Label with time of collection and administration of drug, preferably with drug dose.]
2] DOCTOR CONTACT DETAILS AND CLINICAL HISTORY  IS MANDATORY
2-8ºC India Sirolimus  is  an immunosuppressa nt  drug used either  in  addition to  Cyclosporine or Tacrolimus  or  as a  substitute  in patients  intolerant to  these  drugs. This assay monitors Sirolimus concentration  during  therapy particularly  in individuals co­administered CYP3A4 substrates, inhibitors  or inducers.  The assay  helps to evaluate  patient compliance, adjust dose  to optimize immunosuppressio n while minimizing toxicity.
1731 1528S Skin Biopsy with IFA IMMUNO FLUORESCENT ASSAY / HP TISSUE IN MICHEL’S TRANSPORT MEDIA (IFA) + 10% NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN FIXED TISSUE (HP) + CLINICAL DETAILS & RENAL FUNCTION TEST WITH 24 HOURS URINARY PROTEIN VALUE & URIN REPORT. A India Histopathological processing of specimen with final interpretation (skin).
1732 5004 SLE DIAGNOSTIC PANEL (ANA & DsDNA WITH TITRE) IMMUNOFLUORESCENT ASSAY SERUM R + F India To help diagnose SLE
1733 7139 SMALL DENSE LDL COMBO SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM-12-14 HRS FASTING (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) F India To measure small dense LDL particles which is associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease
1734 1220 SMITH (Sm) IgG ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India Smith antibodies are specific for Lupus erythematosus occuring  in  nearly 30%of  these patients.  It  is  a component  of extractable nuclear  antigens also  seen  in other  connective tissue  disorders. This assay  is useful  for evaluating patients with signs  and symptoms  of  a connective  tissue disorder  in  whom ANA  is  positive.
1735 Z092K SMOOTH MUSCLE ACTIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Identification of cells expressing the alpha-smooth muscle isoform of actin
1736 RD1504 SOLID TUMOR DNA PROFILER NEXT NGS PARAFFIN BLOCK +CLINICAL HISTORY A India To detect rare mutations and tumor subclones.
1737 RD1505 SOLID TUMOR RNA PROFILER NEXT NGS PARAFFIN BLOCK +CLINICAL HISTORY A India To detect rare mutations and tumor subclones
1738 4523 SOLUBLE TRANSFERRIN RECEPTOR( sTFR) NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (8 DAYS); F (>8 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India To detect iron deficiency anemia and distinguish it from anemia caused by chronic illness or inflammation
1739 Z203K SPECIAL STAINS – ANY ONE (PAS/MUCICARMINE/CONGORED/RETICULIN/AFB/GMS/PRUSSIAN BLUE/MASSON/LUXOL FAST BLUE/ FITE FARRACO/ELASTIC STAIN/GIEMSA/ALCIAN BLUE ) HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (PLEASE LET US KNOW THE SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS) A India STAINS GLYCOGEN & MUCIN
1740 9444 SPERM DNA FRAGMENTATION INDIRECT ASSAY USING ACRIDINE ORANGE BY FLOW CYTOMETRY INSTRUCTION:
1. . Semen volume required:  2-3 ml.
2. Temperature and Stability:  – 20 degree (Frozen) for 10 days. Specimen should be forwarded to SRL,Mumbai, preferably within 24hrs of collection between Monday 09:00hrs to Friday 09:00hrs, strictly in frozen condition.
3. Sperm count report or any other test related reports , marital status, smoking and any other medical complications if any details required.  Preferably 3 days abstinence is mandatory for good results.
FROZEN India To denote abnormal genetic material within the sperm
1741 MGEN003 Spinal Muscular Atrophy Gene Panel 0 0 0 India #N/A
1742 8764 SPINAL MUSCULAR ATROPHY MICRODELETION PCR PCR SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD +  CLINICAL HISTORY A India SMA of all types is associated with homozygous mutations in the survival motor neuron 1 gene (SMN1). This test detects homozygous deletion of SMN1 Exon 7 and or Exon 8 which accounts for 95% of SMA.
1743 8765 SPINAL MUSCULAR ATROPHY MICRODELETION PCR PNDT PCR SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/AMNIOTIC FLUID/CVS IN STERILE SALINE/FETAL BLOOD (EDTA) – AMNIOTIC FLUID/CVS IN STERILE SALINE/FETAL BLOOD (EDTA) & EDTA WHOLE BLOOD FOR BOTH PARENTS+ CLINICAL HISTORY  ONLY AMNIOTIC FLUID/ CVS AT 2-8 °C; REST A India SMA of all types is associated with homozygous mutations in the survival motor neuron 1 gene (SMN1). This test detects homozygous deletion of SMN1 Exon 7 and or Exon 8 which accounts for 95% of SMA. It detects both active and carrier status of the disease.
1744 9940 SPORTS GENE TEST (ACTN3 Genotyping) PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/ BUCCAL SWAB A India To determine genetic predisposition to engage in endurance or power sports.
1745 6025F SRY by FISH FISH HEPARIN WHOLE BLOOD AMBIENT India SRY (sex reversal Y) probe detects deletion in Yp11.3 that may be related to gonadal dysgenesis or sex reversal.
1746 6030F SS18 (SYT) Gene Rearrangement FISH FISH BIOPSIES SOULD BE FIXED FOR 24-48 HOURS IN 10% BUFFERED FORMALIN & EMBEDDED IN PARAFFIN. TISSUE SHOULD BE 4 MICRONS THICK & PLACED ON POSITIVELY CHARGED SLIDES. 3 SLIDES / SAMPLES CONTAINING MALIGNANT TISSUE. * TIME AND DURATION OF FIXATION SHOULD BE MENTIONED ON THE TRF.* clinical details in specified format A India Synovial Sarcoma accounts for 5­10% of soft­tissue sarcomas. They harbor the t(X;18)(p11.2;q11. 2), resulting in the fusion of the SYT gene at 18q11 with either the SSX1 or the SSX2 gene (or, rarely, SSX4), which is a primary cytogenetic anomaly in 90% of the cases. Detection of this translocation is highly specific for Synovial Sarcoma. Break­apart rearrangement assays by FISH have been found more suitable for detection of the t(X;18) in Synovial sarcoma, given the presence of multiple partner loci.
1747 1007 SS-A (Ro) & SS-B (La) IgG ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India SSA/Ro & SSB/La are extractable nuclear  antigens. SS­A/Ro antibodies occur in  patients  with Sjogren’s syndrome  (90%), Lupus erythematosus (40­60%) & Rheumatoid arthritis. SS­B/La antibodies  occur in  patients with Sjogren’s syndrome  (60%) &Lupus erythematosus (15%).  This assay is  useful for  evaluating patients  with signs  and symptoms  of connective tissue disorder  in  whom ANA  is positive.
1748 1204 SS-A (Ro) IgG ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India SS­A/Ro  is  an extractable nuclear antigen with  antibodies occuring  in patients  with Sjogren’s syndrome (90%), Lupus erythematosus (40­60%)  & Rheumatoid arthritis.  This assay  is useful for  evaluating patients  with signs and symptoms  of connective  tissue disorder  in  whom ANA  is  positive.
1749 1205 SS-B (La) IgG ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India SS­B/La  is  an extractable nuclear antigen with  antibodies occuring  in patients  with Sjogren’s syndrome (60%) &  Lupus erythematosus (15%). This  assay is  useful  for evaluating patients with signs  and symptoms  of connective  tissue disorder  in  whom ANA  is  positive.
1750 5005 STD DIAGNOSTIC PANEL (C TRACHOMATIS DNA DETECTOR, HPV DNA DETECTOR, HSV DNA DETECTOR ) POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION SWABS / PARAFFIN BLOCK /SLIDES /CSF,URINE IN STERILE CONTAINER A/R/F India Sexually transmitted diseases  (STD) affect  adults worldwide  and many individuals are  at  risk  for complications. These  are  the most  common  of all infectious diseases  with >30  infections now being classified as predominantly sexually transmitted  or  as frequently sexually transmissible. Chlamydial infections  & genital  Herpes can  spread widely even  in  relatively low  risk populations.
1751 9223RFX STOOL ROUTINE REFLEX TO GIARDIA/CRYPTOSPIRA/ROTAVIRUS ANTIGEN MICROSCOPY + ANTIGEN DETECTION BY RAPID IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHY STOOL IN LEAK PROOF CONTAINER A/R India To help diagnose an infection caused by GIARDIA/CRYPTOSPIRA/ROTAVIRUS
1752 2368 STOOL-HANGING DROP (FOR WALK-IN PATIENTS ONLY) MICROSCOPY RICE-WATERY STOOL IN STERILE LEAK PROOF CONTAINER A India A confirmatory test to identify if an organism is motile or non motile
1753 9641 STREPTOCOCCUS GROUP B ANTIGEN LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (FEW HRS); -20°C (LONGER) India Streptococcus Group  B  is  the most common cause  of Neonatal  Sepsis. Early identification is of considrable value in  providing patients  with appropriate antibiotic therapy.
1754 9641C STREPTOCOCCUS GROUP B ANTIGEN, CSF LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION CSF 2-8°C (FEW HRS); -20°C (LONGER) India To help diagnose an infection caused by Streptococcus B
1755 9636 STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE ANTIGEN LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (FEW HRS); -20°C (LONGER) India To help diagnose an infection caused by Streptococcus Pneumonia;
1756 9636C STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE ANTIGEN, CSF LATEX PARTICLE AGGLUTINATION CSF 2-8°C (FEW HRS); -20°C (LONGER) India To help diagnose an infection caused by Streptococcus Pneumonia.
1757 3831 SUCROSE LYSIS TEST HEMOLYSIS EDTA WB A India Screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
1758 Z205 SUDAN BLACK STAIN , BLOOD/SMEAR CYTOCHEMISTRY SPECIAL STAINS BONE MARROW SMEAR + PERIPHERIAL SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV­1) infections are acquired through direct person to person contact, most typically by a nongenital route. HSV 2 infections are usually acquired through sexual contact. This assay helps in determining recent exposure as well as previous exposure to HSV Types 1 & 2.
1759 7928 SV40 IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%  NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK (Site of biopsy,  Clinical details & Primary Histopathology Report ) MANDATORY . IF TISSUE RECEIVED, TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Identification of Simian Virus 40 (SV-40)
1760 Z086K SYNAPTOPHYSIN BLOCK IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Identification of neuronal tumors and tumors with neuroendocrine differentiation
1761 5950T TACROLIMUS CHEMILUMINESCENT MICROPARTICLE IMMUNOASSAY (CMIA) EDTA WHOLE BLOOD (Labelled with time of collection & administration of drug with transplant history) 2-8°C (7 days) India To determine the level of the drug tacrolimus in your blood in order to establish a dosing regimen, maintain therapeutic levels, and detect toxic levels
1762 5950A TACROLIMUS, EDTA/HEPARIN WHOLE BLOOD LCMSMS 1] Require EDTA/Heparin Whole Blood to be collected directly in relevant vaccutainers only  [Label with time of collection and administration of drug, preferably with drug dose.]           2] Doctors contact details+clinical historyis mandatory. 2-8ºC India This  assay  is useful  in monitoring whole blood  Tarcolimus concentration during  therapy particularly  in individuals co­administered CYP3A4  substrates, inhibitors  or inducers.  It  helps to evaluate patient compliance  and adjust dose while minimizing toxicity.
1763 9215RFX TB CULTURE POSITIVE REFLEX MDR BY PCR SEQUENCING FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & BACTEC MGIT 960 CULTURE + PCR – SEQUENCING ANY SPECIMEN IN STERILE CONTAINER/ WHOLE BLOOD HEPARIN / TISSUE IN STERILE NORMAL SALINE + PURE AFB CULTURE R India To help diagnose an infection caused by Mycobacteria:
1764 1464 TB CULTURE: ACID FAST BACILLI CULTURE MGIT FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE ANY SPECIMEN OF PULMONARY ORIGIN IN STERILE CONTAINER/ R India This test includes speciation of Mycobacterium. Rapid automated culture allows the early recovery Mycobacteria within 7 days as compared to conventional culture which takes 4­6 weeks.
1765 2440 TB PANEL (MYCO3 PCR, ADA, GAMMA INTERFERON) POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION / ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY / SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM, PLEURAL FLUID, ASCITIC FLUID, CSF.  FOR GAMMA INTERFERON TO BE COLLECTED FROM SUNDAY TO THRUSDAY IN SPECIAL TBFERON TUBES(3) FOR ADA TEST SERUM / FLUID SAMPLE : F, A/R  FORTBFERON  BLOOD TO BE COLLECTED IN TUBES ( TB-NIL, TB ANTIGEN & MITOGEN TUBE) FROM SUNDAY TO FRIDAY AND TRANSPORTED WITHIN 16 HRS OF COLLECTION AT AMBIENT TEMP India To help diagnose a infection caused by Mycobacteria
1766 2406 TBFERON (M TUBERCULOSIS IGRA) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay WHOLE BLOOD TO BE COLLECTED IN 5 ml BD ENDOTOXIN FREE HEPARIN TUBE PROVIDED BY SRL FROM SUNDAY TO FRIDAY AND TRANSPORTED WITHIN 12 HRS OF COLLECTION. A India Latent tuberculosis infection  (LTBI) is a non­communicabl e asymptomatic condition  that persists  for  many years and  may progress  to tuberculous disease.   The main  aim  of diagnosing LTBI is  to  consider medical  treatment for  preventing  the disease.   This test  is a  measure of  cell  mediated immune response to  antigens simulating  the mycobacterial proteins.  A positive  result indicates  that mycobacterium tuberculosis infection  is  likely but  further medical & diagnostic evaluation   is necessary. This test  is  usually negative  in individuals vaccinated  with Mycobacterium bovis BCG.
1767 9506 TBG (THYROXINE BINDING GLOBULIN) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India The  measurement of  TBG  can  be used to  establish the  presence  of TBG deficiency or excess suggested by abnormal  Total serum  T4 and T3 concentrations  in the  presence  of normal  free levels  of  these hormones. Definitive documentation of a TBG derangement  may avoid unnecessary diagnostic procedures  and  therapy  in individuals  with harmless congenital TBG anomalies,  and  in their  relatives.
1768 2430 TBRESIST  (Note: This test is not applicable for MOTT) PCR – SEQUENCING SPUTUM/ CSF/ BAL/ PLEURAL FLUIDS/  CULTURE (SPECIMENS OF PATIENTS WITH AFB SMEAR LESS THAN 1+ ARE NOT ACCEPTABLE) + CLINICAL HISTORY A India To help diagnose an infection caused by Mycobacteria
1769 9909 T-CELL GENE REARRANGEMENT POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION/  FRAGMENT ANALYSIS BONE MARROW /  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  / CLINICAL HISTORY  TISSUE  EMBEDDED IN PRAFFIN BLOCK OR IN NORMAL SALINE A / A /  A India This assay is useful to  diagnose a lymphoma, monitor the progress of treatment of lymphoma and measure minimal residual disease (MRD), which can predict the likelihood of recurrence.
1770 RD1472 TEL-PDGR BETA T(5;12)  TRANSLOCATION Nested RT-PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / BONE MARROW- EDTA A India To detect TEL-PDGR BETA T(5;12)  TRANSLOCATION seen in Hematolymphoid Neoplasms (CMML)
1771 1635B TERMINAL DEOXYNUCLEOTIDYL TRANSFERASE (TDT) FLOW CYTOMETRY WB-EDTA + HEPARIN + SMEAR + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Precursor cell marker
1772 1635M TERMINAL DEOXYNUCLEOTIDYL TRANSFERASE (TDT) FLOW CYTOMETRY BONE MARROW-HEPARIN + SMEAR / EDTA + HISTORY A India Precursor cell marker
1773 Z216K TERMINAL DEOXYNUCLEOTIDYL TRANSFERASE (TDT) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Classification of leukemias or lymphomas
1774 3248FT TESTOSTERONE, FREE RADIO IMMUNOASSAY SERUM (AGE + GENDER TO BE MENTIONED)-SAMPLE  TO BE DRAWN IN THE MORNING HRS 2-8°C (24 HRS); F ( >24 HRS) India Circulating Testosterone consists  of testosterone bound  to  SHBG and  the bioavailable  (Free  &  Bound  to Albumin).  The latter  is biologically  active. In men approximately 40% of Total testosterone  is albumin  bound while  in women approximately 20%  is albumin bound.
1775 3248 TESTOSTERONE, FREE/TOTAL CHEMILUMINESCENCE / RADIOIMMUNOASSAY SERUM (Age + Gender to be mentioned)-SAMPLE TO BE DRAWN IN THE MORNING hrs 2-8°C (24 HRS); F ( >24 HRS) India Circulating Testosterone consists  of testosterone bound  to  SHBG   and  the bioavailable  (Free &  Bound  to Albumin).  The latter  is biologically active. In  men approximately 40%  of Total testosterone  is albumin  bound while  in  women approximately 20%   is albumin bound.
1776 9963 TETANUS IgG Antibodies Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (2 days); -20°C  (>2 days) India To help diagnose an infection caused by  Clostridium Tetani
1777 2479 THALASSEMIA; ALPHA THALASSEMIA MUTATION DETECTION (α3.7, α4.2, αFIL, αSEA, αTHAI ) MULTIPLEX DNA POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+CLINICAL HISTORY A India This assay is useful for the detection of mutations which lead to alpha thalessemia.
1778 2480 THALASSEMIA; ALPHA THALASSEMIA MUTATION DETECTION (α3.7, α4.2, αFIL, αSEA, αTHAI )  PNDT MULTIPLEX DNA POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION AMNIOTIC FLUID / CVS IN STERILE SALINE / FETAL BLOOD EDTA & EDTA WHOLE BLOOD FOR BOTH PARENTS + CLINICAL HISTORY ONLY AMNIOTIC FLUID/ CVS AT 2-8 °C; REST A India To detect whether a mentioned mutation is present or not
1779 2482 THALASSEMIA; BETA THALASSEMIA MUTATION DETECTION (IVS1-5 G-C, 619 bp deletion, cd 8/9 + G, IVS1-1 G-T,  41/42 – TTCT) MULTIPLEX DNA POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION  EDTA WHOLE BLOOD+ CLINICAL HISTORY A India This test detects 22 most common mutations  linked to Beta  Thalassemia in India & Middle East.
1780 2483 THALASSEMIA; BETA THALASSEMIA MUTATION DETECTION (IVS1-5 G-C, 619 bp deletion, cd 8/9 + G, IVS1-1 G-T,  41/42 – TTCT)  PNDT MULTIPLEX DNA POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION AMNIOTIC FLUID / CVS IN STERILE SALINE / FETAL BLOOD EDTA+EDTA WHOLE BLOOD FOR BOTH PARENTS + CLINICAL HISTORY ONLY AMNIOTIC FLUID/ CVS AT 2-8 °C; REST A India This test detects 5 most common mutations  linked to Beta Thalassemia in India & Middle East in the fetus using amniotic fluid or CVS as the sample.
1781 9155U24 THALLIUM, 24 HRS URINE ICPMS 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL MUMBAI  (NO PRESERVATIVE)  ALIQUOT  IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL OR STERILE URINE CONTAINER WITH GREEN CAP BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL MUMBAI (NO PRESERVATIVE) VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (28 DAYS);  F  (28DAYS) India To screen for, detect, and monitor excessive exposure to thallium;
1782 9155 THALLIUM, BLOOD ICPMS IMPROVE/BD, SRL EDTA WHOLE BLOOD 2-8°C (28 DAYS);  F  (28DAYS) India To screen for, detect, and monitor excessive exposure to thallium.
1783 9155U THALLIUM, URINE SPOT ICPMS SPOT  URINE IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION VIAL (NO PRESERVATIVE) OR STERILE PLASTIC URINE CONTAINER WITH GREEN CAP (NO PRESERVATIVE) BOTH AVAILABLE FROM SRL MUMBAI   VACCUTAINER COLLECTION WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED 2-8°C (28 DAYS);  F  (28DAYS) India To screen for, detect, and monitor excessive exposure to thallium
1784 1563I THEOPHYLLINE, SERUM PETINIA 1] Require SERUM sample.Mention time of drug dose.
2] Require Doctors Name and Contact details + Clinical history of the patient is mandatory.
REFRIGERATED India Thallium  is  a by­product  of lead smelting  and is  basically  used as  a rodenticide. High  doses  lead to  Alopecia, Peripheral neuropathy  &  Renal failure.  This assay  detects toxic  thallium exposure.
1785 4210 THROMBIN TIME CLOT BASED FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C+ CLINICAL HISTORY(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India This  assay  is useful  for identifying  the cause  of  a prolonged  PT  / APTT  / dRVVT tests.  Prolonged TT  is  consistent with  the  presence of  heparin  like anticoagulants, hypofibrinogenemi a, dysfibrinogenemia, fibrin degradation products  and antibody  inhibitors of thrombin.
1786 1751M Thrombocheck Total CLOT BASED / CHEMILUMINESCENCE/CHROMOGENIC ASSAY/ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY/PCR SEQUENCING FASTING SERUM AND CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* 3 VIALS- AT MINUS 20° C(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + CLINICAL HISTORY, EDTA Whole Blood FROZEN (To be F immediately at -20°c & transported in dry ice) India Thrombophilia evaluations  are usually performed to  assess  the need  to  extend anticoagulation, hence  testing should  be performed  in  a steady  state, remote from  the acute  event. Laboratory assays to  detect thrombophilic states  include highly sensitive and specific test like molecular diagnosis, immunologic  and functional  assays. Many  coagulation factors  and inhibitors  are affected during acute  thrombosis, acute  illnesses, inflammatory conditions, pregnancy certain medications. Antithrombin  is decreased  by heparin  and acute thrombosis whereas  protein C  &  S levels  are increased  during acute thrombosis, but  decreased  by warfarin. Lupus anticoagulants are  also associated  with thromboembolic disease states.
1787 1253M THROMBOCHEK PANEL (Protein C, Protein S, Lupus Antigoagulent, Antiphospholipid Antibody, Serum Homocystein, Anti Thrombin  III Activity)   [To be ordered with Factor V leiden (# 9894)] which will be charged separately CLOT BASED / CHEMILUMINESCENCE/CHROMOGENIC ASSAY/ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY FASTING SERUM /PLASMA (Centrfuge samples and remove SERUM or plasma from red blood cells as soon as possible to ensure accurate measurement.) AND  CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* 2 VIALS-  AT MINUS 20° C(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + CLINICAL HISTORY HOMOCYSTEINE:2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs),A/R/F AND F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India To help investigate the cause of a blood clot (thrombotic episode); to evaluate a prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT); to help determine the cause of recurrent miscarriages, or as part of an evaluation for antiphospholipid syndrome
1788 4804 THROMBOTIC RISK PANEL CLOT BASED & ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY AND PCR SEQUENCING PLATELet Poor Citrated plasma + SERUM/EDTA PLASMA AND EDTA WHOLE BLOOD F (F immediately at -20°c)  / A OR R India An  imbalance between procoagulant system  and regulatory mechanisms  can cause excessive fibrin production leading  to Thrombosis. These imbalances can  be  genetic or  acquired or due  to  a combination  of both leading to excessive fibrin formation at the site  of  injury  with vessel  occlusion and  thrombus formation.  Major risk factor  for arterial thrombosis  is atherosclerosis while  for  venous thrombosis,  the risk  factors include immobility, surgery, malignancy, hormone  therapy, obesity  and genetic factors.
1789 DT8100 THYPROBE (TSH3G – UL, aTG, aTPO, FT4) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM ( Age + Gender + Clinical History Required ) Mandatory 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India To help diagnose and monitor autoimmune thyroid disorders.
1790 Z170K THYROGLOBULIN IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY) IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Classification of thyroid carcinoma
1791 3251 THYROGLOBULIN CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM (CLINICAL HISTORY REQUIRED) 2-8°C (72 hrs); F (2 Months) India This  assay  is useful  as  a follow up  of patients  with differentiated thyroid cancers after   thyroidectomy  & ablation. It  also acts  as  an  aid  in determining the presence  of thyroid  metastasis to lymph  nodes. In  the  absence of significant thyroid remnant, elevated or rising Tg  levels  are suspicious of recurrent or persistent disease.
1792 1016 THYROID ANTIBODIES (ANTI- THYROID PREOXIDASE abs. (also known as Anti Microsomal abs.) AND ANTI-THYROGLOBULIN ABS) CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM 2-8°C (48 HRS); F ( >48 HRS) India Measurements of Antithyroid thyroglobulin and Antithyroid peroxidase antibodies are used for the diagnosis of Autoimmune thyroid disease. Positive thyroid autoantibody levels in patients with high normal or slightly elevated thyrotropin levels predicts future development of more profound hypothyroidism. Patients with post­partum thyroiditis with persistently elevated thyroid antibody levels have an increased likelihood of permanent hypothyroidism.
1793 Z231 THYROID LESIONS IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Classification of thryoid carcinomas
1794 9356 THYROID STIMULATING HORMONE (TSH) > 1 MONTH FEIA Dried blood spots Ambient India To help diagnose thyroid disorders
1795 Z065K THYROID TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR- 1 IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India Thyroid transcription factor 1aids in the classification of carcinomas of unknown origin
1796 Z166K THYROID-STIMULATING HORMONE (TSH) IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK + SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India To help diagnose thyroid disorders and to monitor treatment of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism
1797 TISSUE TISSUE FOR PROCESSING HISTOPATHOLOGY TISSUE FIXED IN 10%FORMALIN+ SITE OF BIOPSY + CLINICAL DETAILS (FOR BONE SPECIMENS ALSO SEND X-RAY) A India Processing of biopsy sample for further analysis
1798 TISSUE1 Tissue for processing (1block) Histopathology Formalin fixed tissue A India Processing of biopsy sample for further analysis
1799 TISSUE2 Tissue for processing (3blocks) Histopathology Formalin fixed tissue A India Processing of biopsy sample for further analysis
1800 TISSUE3 Tissue for processing (7blocks) Histopathology Formalin fixed tissue A India Processing of biopsy sample for further analysis
1801 2231M TORCH IgM ANTIBODIES (4 Parameters) Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (4 DAYS); -20°C  (>4 DAYS) India This  panel  tests for  the  common agents  causing uterine  infection leading  to recurrent abortions  and transmission  from a  pregnant woman  to the fetus.   This  assay is  useful  as  an indication  of recent  acquired  / Congenital infection  with Toxoplasma, Rubella,  CMV  & Herpes  viruses.
1802 2232 TORCH PCR (Toxoplasma PCR, Rubella PCR, Cytomegalovirus PCR, Herpes Simple Virus PCR) POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION EDTA PLASMA, CSF, AMNIOTIC FLUID, SERUM, NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB; IF SERUM SENT,EDTA PLASMA  IS MANDATORY F India This assay is useful for detection of micro­organisms such as Toxoplasma, Rubella, CMV and Herpes simplex particulary in pregnant women
1803 5201 TOTAL BILE ACIDS SPECTROPHOTOMETRY SERUM (10-12 HRS FASTING) AVOID LIPEMIC & HEMOLYSED SPECIMEN.  (CLINICAL HISTORY , AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C ( 7 DAYS); F ( >7 DAYS – 3 MONTHS) India Total bile acids are metabolized in the liver and can serve as a marker for normal liver function. Increases in serum bile acids are seen in patients with acute hepatitis, chronic hepatitis, liver sclerosis, liver cancer, and intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy.  In Obstetric Cholestasis, concentrations greater than 15 μmol/L usually confirms the diagnosis in the absence of other hepatic disease. Bile acid concentrations greater than 40 μmol/L have been associated with increased fetal risk.
1804 9354 TOTAL GALACTOSE (TGAL)> 1 MONTH Fluorimetry Dried blood spots Ambient India Screening for galactosemia
1805 7522 Toxoplasma gondii PCR NESTED PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD, CSF, AMNIOTIC FLUID, SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Women infected with toxoplasmosis can transmit the infection across the placenta to their unborn baby. Most babies infected during pregnancy show no sign of toxoplasmosis when they are born, but they may develop learning, visual, and hearing disabilities later in life. This test is useful for the detection of Toxoplama in amniotic fuild and other samples.
1806 9433 TOXOPLASMA IGG AVIDITY Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (4 DAYS); -20°C  (>4 DAYS) India Avidity  test  helps in  discriminating primary  infection &  reinfection. Avidity indices less  than  30%  is an  indication of current  infection.
1807 2233 TOXORubella PCR (Toxoplasma PCR, Rubella PCR) POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION EDTA PLASMA, CSF, AMNIOTIC FLUID, SERUM, NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB F India Women infected with toxoplasmosis can transmit the infection across the placenta to their unborn baby. Most babies infected during pregnancy show no sign of toxoplasmosis when they are born, but they may develop learning, visual, and hearing disabilities later in life. This test is useful for the detection of Toxoplama in amniotic fuild and other samples.
1808 8030 TPMT GENOTYPING PCR SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD  2-8°C India Measurement  of TPMT  activity  is encouraged  prior to  commencing the treatment  of patients  with Thiopurine drugs such  as Azathioprine,  6­ Mercaptopurine and 6­Thioguanine. Patients with  low or  absent  activity are  at  a heightened  risk of  drug­induced bone  marrow toxicity  due  to accumulation  of the unmetabolised drug.
1809 9504 TPMT GENOTYPING+MTHFR MUTATION DETECTION PANEL PCR SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY A India To detect a thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) deficiency and determine your risk of developing severe side effects if treated with the class of immune-suppressing thiopurine drugs that includes azathioprine, mercaptopurine, and thioguanine. This test also looks for mutations in the MTHFR gene
1810 1519HD TRANSFERRIN NEPHELOMETRY 10 -12 HRS FASTING SERUM + CLINICAL HISTORY + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY) 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F (>7 -90 DAYS, IF F WITHIN 24 HRS. OF COLLECTION) India Transferrin  is  an iron  binding serum protein which  increases in  response  to iron deficiency in chronic diseases and due  to  other causes.  This assay  is useful for  workup  of patients suspected of having  congenital transferrin abnormalities.  It is  an  alternate test  to  TIBC.
1811 9020 TREPONEMA PALLIDIUM HEMAGGLUTINATION ASSAY (TPHA) PASSIVE HEMAGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (7 DAYS); -20°C  (>7 DAYS) India The serological diagnosis of syphilis is classified into two groups: Nontreponemal tests (RPR/VDRL) and Treponemal tests (TPHA/CLIA). Syphilis serology is a treponemal assay for the qualitative determination of antibodies to T. pallidum in human serum or plasma as an aid in the diagnosis of syphilis. Treponemal tests may remain reactive for life, even following adequate therapy thus a positive result suggests infection with Treponema pallidum but does not distinguish between treated and untreated infections. Therefore, the results of a nontreponemal assay, such as rapid plasma reagin, are needed to provide information on a patient’s disease state and history of therapy. Nontreponemal tests lack sensitivity in late stage of infection and screening with these tests alone may yield false positive reactions in various acute and chronic conditions in the absence of syphilis (biological false positive reactions).
1812 4115 Trypanosoma cruzi IgG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (2 DAYS) /  >2 DAYS -20°C India To help diagnose an infection caused by Trypanosoma cruzi
1813 3254I TSH RECEPTOR ANTIBODIES RADIO IMMUNOASSAY SERUM FROZEN: UP TO 2 WEEKS India This  assay  is used  as  an  aid in  the differential diagnosis  and monitoring  of Grave’s  disease.   Measurement  of TSH receptor antibody  in  the last  trimester of pregnancy  in  a patient  with history of  thyroid disease  helps  in assessing the  risk of  thyroid disease  in neonates.
1814 5433 TUMOR NECROSIS FACTOR -ALPHA ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM AFTER SEPARATION OF SERUM IMMEDIATELY STORE AT -20 °C India Evaluation of patients with suspected systemic infection, in particular infection caused by gram-negative bacteria. Evaluation of patients with suspected chronic inflammatory disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, or ankylosing spondylitis
1815 1215 U1 snRNP ANTIBODIES IMMUNOBLOT SERUM 2-8°C (14 days); -20°C  (>14 days) India U1RNP  antibody in  combination with Smith antibody  provides additional support for  the  diagnosis of  SLE.  A positive   U1RNP antibody  alone with the corresponding  clinical  history supports  the diagnosis  of Mixed connective tissue disease.
1816 RD1479 UGTA1 GENE MUTATION PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD + CLINICAL HISTORY in specified format A India Aids in identifying patients at risk for Irinotecan toxicity.
UGT1A1 genotyping is also helpful for the diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome.
It is recommended on patients to be treated with chemotherapy regimens including Irinotecan (Camptosar) and for patients with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
1817 4332 URINARY OXALATE ENZYMATIC SPECTROPHOTOMETRY URINE -24 HOURS COLLECTED IN 10 ML CONC HCL & REFRIGERATE DURING COLLECTION.  ( MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY MANDATORY  DETAILS.) F (7 DAYS) India This  assay  is useful  for monitoring therapy for  kidney  stones and  identifying increased  urinary oxalate  as  a  risk factor  for  stone formation.  It  also helps in  the diagnosis  of Primary  or Second­ ary hyperoxaluria. Ingestion  of Ascorbic acid  may falsely  elevate urinary  oxalate excretion.
1818 3316U URINARY VMA (VANILYL MANDELIC ACID) SPECTROPHOTOMETRIC 20ML OF URINE ALIQUOT FROM THE COLLECTED 24HRS URINE SPECIMEN TO BE SHIPPED STRICTLY IN FROZEN CONDITION (Do not consume bananas, pineapple, chocolates, coffee, ice creams, high diet in cereals and vanilla, potatoes and B-Complex, Vitamins 48 hours pr F India Elevated values of VMA along with other catecholamine metabolites are suggestive of catecholamine secreting tumor like Neuroblastoma, Pheochromocytom a and other Neural crest tumors. VMA levels may also be useful in monitoring patients who are also treated. Elevated levels are suggestive of Pheochromocytom a but not diagnostic.
1819 5002 URINE SUPERSATURATION PANEL   (CALCIUM, MAGNESIUM,OXALATE,URIC ACID AND PHOSPHORUS, FROM 24hrs URINE ) SPECTROPHOTOMETRY, ENZYMATIC SPECTROPHOTOMETRY  ON 2 DIFFERENT DAYS URINE SAMPLES TO BE COLLECTED. 1- FOR CALCIUM, MAGNESIUM, URIC ACID & PHOSPHORUS 24 HRS URINE COLLECTED WITHOUT PRESERVATIVE  &  THROUGHOUT COLLECTION REFRIGERATE URINE SPECIMEN & SEND FROZEN ALIQUOTE TO SRL LAB.  2- FOR OXALATE 24 HOURS URINE COLLECTED IN 10 ML CONC HCL & SEND FROZEN ALIQUOTE TO SRL LAB ( MENTION 24 HRS. TOTAL URINE VOLUME ON TRF ALONG WITH PATIENT AGE, GENDER AND CLINICAL HISTORY MANDATORY  DETAILS.) F India To help determine the underlying reason for developing a kidney stone
1820 5007 UTI SCREENING PANEL (CBC,ESR,GLUCOSE FASTING, URINALYSIS,URINE CULTURE/SENSITIVITY)  AUTOMATED CELL COUNTER, AUTOMATED (PHOTOMETRICAL CAPILLARY STOPPED FLOW KINETIC ANALYSIS) / MANUAL (MODIFIED WESTERGREN) /SPECTROPHOTOMETRY/DIPSTICK& MICROSCOPY/CULTURE EDTA WB/CITRATE WB BLACK TOP  /FASTING PLASMA FLOURIDE & URINE + 2-3 SMEARS + (AGE & GENDER IS MANDATORY)/URINE IN STERILE CONTAINER FLUORIDE PLASMA : 2-8°C  (3 DAYS);  URINE : 2-8°C(24 HRS) India To help diagnose urinary tract infection
1821 DT3203 VACCICHEQ (HBsAb, VZV IgG, MUMPS IgG, MEASLES IgG,Rubella IgG) Chemiluminescent Microparticle Immunoassay (CMIA)/ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY SERUM R/F India To check the status of mentioned vaccines
1822 3360H VALPROIC ACID CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM (JUST BEFORE THE NEXT DOSE; USUALLY EARLY IN THE MORNING;TO CONFIRM THAT AN ADEQUATE DOSE IS PRESCRIBED BEFORE BEDTIME) 2-8°C (48 HRS); F ( >48 HRS) India Valproic  Acid  is used  for  the treatment of simple  and complex  absence seizures and  in combination  with other  anti­convulsants for  treatment  of generalized seizures.  This assay  is  useful for monitoring therapy, assessing compliance  and evaluating potential toxicity.
1823 4197 VANCOMYCIN CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM [IT IS MANDATORY TO MENTION ON THE TRF WHETHER IT IS A TROUGH LEVEL (PRE-DOSE) OR PEAK LEVEL (POST-DOSE) SAMPLE]. 2-8°C (48 HRS); F (> 48 HRS) India Vanconmycin is an antibiotic used to treat infections by Gram Positive organisms resistant to Beta­lactam antibiotics. Vancomycin is associated with Nephrotoxocity & Ototoxicity, hence therapeutic monitoring is essential specially in patients with reduced renal function, aggressive or prolonged Vancomycin therapy and co­medication with other  Nephrotoxic agents. Toxic effects have resulted when serum concentrations of vancomycin reach 80 to 100 μg/mL and are rarely seen when serum  levels are maintained below 30 μg/mL. If an aminoglycoside is being used concurrently, the potential for toxicity is additive.
1824 8125 VARICELLA (HERPES) ZOSTER IGG ANTIBODIES, CSF EIA/Biochemical Serum & CSF FROZEN India To help diagnose an infection caused by VARICELLA (HERPES) ZOSTER
1825 9220RFX VDRL REFLEX TPHA CONFIRMATION FLOCCULATION & PASSIVE HEMAGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (3 days); -20°C  (>3 days) India To screen for or diagnose an infection with the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which causes syphilis, a sexually transmitted disease (STD)
1826 Z047K VIMENTIN IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK+ SITE OF BIOPSY AND CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY.IF TISSUE RECEIVED IT WILL BE CHARGED FOR TISSUE PROCESSING A India Vimentin is the major intermediate filament in a variety of mesenchymal cells, including endothelial cells, all fibroblastic cells, macrophages, Sertoli cells, melanocytes, lymphocytes and ovarian granulosa cells. Vimentin is found in all types of sarcomas and lymphomas. Positive staining for vimentin is seen in most cells of fibrosarcomas, liposarcomas, malignant fibrous histocytomas, angiosarcomas, chondrosarcomas and lymphomas. All melanomas and Schwannomas are strongly vimentin-positive.
1827 9887 VIRAL PNEUMONIA PANEL I (Influenza A RNA, Influenza B RNA, Para Influenza, RSV, Enterovirus RNA) MULTIPLEX POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION SWAB (THROAT SWAB, NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB, RESPIRATORY SECRETIONS, BAL)  F India To help diagnose a viral penumonia caused by mentioned virus
1828 9888 VIRAL PNEUMONIA PANEL II (Adenovirus DNA, Cytomegalovirus DNA, HSV 1 & 2) POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION   SWAB (THROAT SWAB, NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB, RESPIRATORY SECRETIONS, BAL)  F India To help diagnose a viral penumonia caused by mentioned virus
1829 3511 VITAMIN A, SERUM/EDTA PLASMA HPLC 1] Require 12-14 hrs fasting SERUM sample (to be collected in plain tube not in gel tube) or Plasma EDTA.
2] It should be light protected (wrap in aluminum foil) and to be stored to freeze immediately.
3] Doctors Name and Contact details + Clinical history of the patient is mandatory.
4] Patients must have no alcohol and must be without Vitamin A supplement for 24 hrs.
F [Serum 43 days,EDTA Plasmsa 8 days at -18ºC ] India This  assay  is useful  for diagnosing Vitamin A deficiency & toxicity and for monitoring therapy.  It evaluates  persons with  intestinal malabsorption  of lipids. Vitamin A deficiency can leads to blindness whereas  chronic intoxication can affect  several organs.  Known  HIV positive patients  with Vitamin A deficiency show increased disease progression  and mortality.
1830 3512 VITAMIN B1, SERUM/EDTA PLASMA HPLC 1] Require 12-14 hrs fasting SERUM sample (to be collected in plain tube not in gel tube) or Plasma EDTA.
2] Specimen should be light protected (wrap tube in aluminum foil) and should be stored to freeze immediately.
3] Doctors Name and Contact details+ Clinical history of the patient is mandatory.4] Patients must have no alcohol and must be without Vitamin B1 supplement for 24 hrs.
F India Assessment of thiamine deficiency
1831 3513 VITAMIN B2, SERUM/EDTA PLASMA HPLC 1] Require 12-14 hrs fasting SERUM sample (to be collected in plain tube not in gel tube) or Plasma EDTA.
2] Specimen should be light protected (wrap tube in aluminum foil) and should be stored to freeze immediately.
3] Doctors Name and Contact details+ Clinical history of the patient is mandatory. 4] Patients must have no alcohol and must be without Vitamin B2 supplement for 24 hrs.
F India Vitamin  B2  is involved  in metabolism  of fats, carbohydrates and  proteins.  The clinical manifestations of deficiency are non­specific and include mucocutaneous lesions  of  the mouth  and  skin, corneal vascularization, anemia,  and personality changes.
1832 3514 VITAMIN B6, SERUM/EDTA PLASMA HPLC 1] Require 12-14 hrs fasting SERUM sample (to be collected in plain tube not in gel tube) or Plasma EDTA.
2] Specimen should be light protected (wrap tube in aluminum foil) and should be stored to freeze immediately.
3] Doctors Name and Contact details+ Clinical history of the patient is mandatory.4] Patients must have no alcohol and must be without Vitamin B6  supplement for 24 hrs.
F India Vitamin  B6  is  a cofactor  in  many metabolic pathways including  heme synthesis.  Vitamin B6 deficiency may be observed  in patients  with metabolic disorders, secondary  to therapeutic  drug use, or alcoholism. Deficiency effects   the  function  of the  immune system.
1833 3516 VITAMIN C, EDTA Plasma HPLC 1] Require 12-14 hrs fasting Plasma EDTA only.
2] Specimen should be light protected (wrap in aluminum foil) and should BE STORED TO FREEZE IMMEDIATELY.
3] Require Doctors Name and Contact details+ Clinical history of the patient is mandatory. 4] Patients must have no alcohol and must be without Vitamin C supplement for 24 hrs.
F India  Vitamin  C  is  an antioxidant involved  in connective  tissue metabolism,  drug metabolizing systems  and mixed  ­ function oxidase systems. Deficiency causes Scurvy.  This assay  is  useful in the diagnosis of Vitamin C deficiency and   as an  aid  to  deter excessive intake.
1834 3517 VITAMIN E, SERUM/EDTA PLASMA HPLC 1] Require 12-14 hrs fasting sample, if SERUM (to be collected in plain tube not in gel tube) or Plasma EDTA.
2] It should be light protected (wrap in aluminum foil) and should be stored to freeze immediately.
3] Doctors Name and Contact details + Clinical history of the patient is mandatory.
4] Patients must have no alcohol and must be without Vitamin E supplement for 24 hrs.
[Serum and EDTA Plasmsa, 15 days at -18ºC] India Evaluation of individuals with motor and sensory neuropathies. Monitoring vitamin E status of premature infants requiring oxygenation. Evaluation of persons with intestinal malabsorption of lipids.
1835 7523 VITAMIN K1, SERUM HPLC 1] Require 3.5mL of 12 hrs fasting SERUM sample (to be collected in plain tube not in gel tube).
2] It should be light protected (wrap in aluminum foil) and should be stored to freeze immediately.
3] Doctors Name and Contact details + Clinical history of the patient is mandatory.
frozen India Vitamin  K  is required  as  a cofactor  for the synthesis  of Factors  II,  VII,  IX & X and protein C & S. Deficiency leads to  bleeding. Warfarin  acts  as an anticoagulant because  it  is  a Vitamin  K antagonist.
1836 7101 VITAMIN PLUS XL CHEMILUMINESCENCE SERUM ( Age+Gender mandatory) 2-8°C (48 hrs); F (>48 hrs) India Assessment of Vitamins deficiency
1837 9050 VON WILLEBRAND FACTOR ANTIGEN, PLASMA IMMUNOTURBIDIMETRY-STA COMPACT FASTING, CITRATED PLATELET POOR PLASMA* –  AT MINUS 20° C*(DOUBLE CENTRIFUGED PLASMA)* + CLINICAL HISTORY F (TO BE F IMMEDIATELY AT -20°C & TRANSPORTED IN DRY ICE) India von  Willebrand factor  is important  for platelet­platelet  & platelet­vessel hemostatic interactions. Decreased  vWF antigen  is  seen in  Congenital  von Willebrand disease  (vWD) and  in acquired conditions associated  with monocloncal gammopathies, lymphoproliferative disorders  and autoimmune diseases.  This assay  is useful for  the  diagnosis of  vWD  and its subtyping.  It  also helps  in differentiating
1838 9052 VON WILLEBRAND FACTOR, PLASMA ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY PLASMA (CITRATE) 20+/-5°C (8 HRS); -20°C (1MONTHS) India To diagnose von Willebrand disease (VWD)
1839 8762 VZV PCR PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD/CSF/VESICLE SWAB IN STERILE SALINE/CSF/AMNIOTIC FLUID/CVS A India Varicella­zoster virus (VZV) causes both Varicella (Chickenpox) and Herpes zoster (Shingles). VZV produces a generalized vesicular rash on the dermis (chickenpox) in normal children, usually before 10 years of age. After primary infection with VZV, the virus persists in latent form and may emerge, usually in adults 50 years of age and older clinically to cause a unilateral vesicular eruption, generally in a dermatomal distribution (shingles). VZV DNA is detected in cerebrospinal fluid from patients with central nervous system disease caused by this virus.
1840 RD1302 WARFARIN SENSITIVITY BY GENOTYPING PCR-SEQUENCING EDTA WHOLE BLOOD A/R India To determine CYP2C9 and/or VKORC1 genetic variations and the dose of  warfarin
1841 9121 WEIL FELIX TUBE AGGLUTINATION SERUM 2-8°C (2DAYS);       -20°C (>2DAYS) India This  test  detects infection  due  to Rickettsial organisms. Rickettsiae  are fastidious bacterial organisms  that are maintained  in nature  through  a cycle involving reservoirs  in mammals  and insect  vectors.  A 4  fold  rise  in titer  is diagnostic of  infection.
1842 9960 WEST NILE VIRUS IGG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (14 DAYS); -20°C  (>14 DAYS) India To help diagnose an infection caused by West Nile virus (WNV)
1843 9959 WEST NILE VIRUS IGM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (14 DAYS); -20°C  (>14 DAYS) India To help diagnose an infection caused by West Nile virus (WNV)
1844 3012 WESTERN BLOT-HIV -1 ANTIBODIES(Confirmation) INDICATES- HIV -2 IMMUNOBLOT SERUM / EDTA  (PLASMA MAY BE ACCEPTABLE) 2-8°C (7 DAYS) ,>7 DAYS -20°C India This is a confirmatory test for HIV. Specificity when combined with ELISA exceeds 99.9%. Indeterminate results may be seen with early HIV 1/2 infections, Autoimmune diseases, pregnancy and recent Tetanus Toxoid administration
1845 RD1493 WHOLE EXOME SEQUENCING – – SOLO Next Generation Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD (PROBAND & PARENT) + CLINICAL HISTORY A India WES is a test that looks at the genetic information contained in all of our 20,000 genes (and their multiple exons) in one single test.
1846 Z119K WILM’S TUMOR PROTEIN 1 (WT1) IMMUNO HISTOCHEMISTRY TISSUE IN 10%FORMALIN / PARAFFIN BLOCK -SITE OF BIOPSY & CLINICAL DETAILS MANDATORY IF TISSUE RECD. TISSUE PROCESSING WILL BE CHARGED A India Wilms tumor susceptibility gene 1 protein (WT1) has diagnostic utility in the distinction of mesothelioma from adenocarcinoma in tissue sections of pleural tumors. WT1 diffusely stains most ovarian serous carcinomas and all Wilms tumors.
1847 RD1407 WT1 MUTATION DETECTION PCR – Sequencing EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / EDTA BONE MARROW + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Wilm’s tumour tumor suppressor gene1 (WT1) causes an embryonic malignancy of the kidney. It occurs in both sporadic and hereditary forms. Inactivation of WT1 causes Wilm’s tumour, and Denys­Drash syndrome (DDS), leading to nephropathy and genital abnormalities
1848 RD1324EP XPERT  MTB / RIF ( GENE EXPERT)  – EXTRAPULMONARY REAL TIME PCR ON GENEXPERT PLATFORM PUS, PLEURAL FLUID , ASITIC FLUID/GASTRIC ASPIRATE, TISSUE, CSF, PERITONEAL FLUID, PERICARDIAL FLUID, SYNOVIAL/KNEE JOINT FLUID, ABSCESS ASPIRATE A/R India To help diagnose an infection caused by Mycobacteria, Extrapulmonary
1849 9507UL XPERT PLUS Semi nested Real time PCR on GeneXpert platform / FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE SPUTUM  / BAL / ENDOMETRIAL TISSUE A India #N/A
1850 9507EPUL XPERT PLUS Semi nested Real time PCR on GeneXpert platform / FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE SPUTUM  / BAL / ENDOMETRIAL TISSUE A India #N/A
1851 7713UL XPERT TOTAL Semi nested Real time PCR on GeneXpert platform / FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE /BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD SPUTUM  / BAL / ENDOMETRIAL TISSUE A India #N/A
1852 7713EPUL XPERT TOTAL – EXTRAPULMONARY Semi nested Real time PCR on GeneXpert platform / FLUORESCENT STAIN / ZIEHL NEELSEN STAIN & MGIT 960+LJ CULTURE /BACTEC MGIT-960 METHOD  ENDOMETRIAL TISSUE/PUS/CSF A India To help diagnose an infection caused by Mycobacteria, Extrapulmonary
1853 RD1440 Y-CHROMOSOME MICRODELETION PCR MULTIPLEX PCR EDTA WHOLE BLOOD A India Y chromosome microdeletion (YCM) is a family of genetic disorders caused by missing gene(s) in the Y chromosome. YCM is known to be present in a significant number of men with reduced fertility. In men with reduced sperm production some form of YCM has been detected and varies from oligozoospermia,  significant lack of sperm, or azoospermia, complete lack of sperm.
1854 5702 YERSINIA CULTURE CULTURE STOOL IN STERILE CONTAINER R India To help diagnose an infection caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
1855 3329IG YERSINIA ENTEROCOLITICA IgG Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (2 DAYS); -20°C  (>2 DAYS) India To help diagnose an infection caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
1856 3329IM YERSINIA ENTEROCOLITICA IgM Enzyme Linked Immnunosorbent assay SERUM 2-8°C (2 DAYS); -20°C  (>2 DAYS) India To help diagnose an infection caused by Yersinia enterocolitica
1857 4965 ZAP-70 FLOW CYTOMETRY EDTA WHOLE BLOOD / HEPARIN  WHOLE BLOOD + DIRECT SMEARS + CLINICAL HISTORY A India Prognostic marker for CLL
1858 9145U24 ZINC, 24 HR URINE FAAS WITH D2 CORRECTION 24 HR URINE IN METAL FREE JERRY CAN AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE).  24 HRS VOLUME SHOULD BE COMPULSARILY SPECIFIED .  FIRST SHAKE THE CAN AND TAKE THE 10-20 ML  ALIQUOT. IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION BOTTLE AVAILABLE  FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE)THE MEASUREMENT OF URINE VOLUME SHOULD BE DONE AFTER ALIQUOTING. 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F ( >5 – 30 DAYS) India Zinc  is  an essential  element which  acts as  a critical  co­factor in  various  enzyme systems and  is  required for  active wound healing. Zinc deficiency occurs due  to  lack  of dietary  absorption or loss  after absorption.  Zinc excess  is  not a major  clinical concern.  The only known  effect of  excessive  zinc ingestion is interference  with copper  absorption leading  to hypocupremia. This  assay  is useful  for identifying  the cause  of abnormal serum zinc.
1859 9145 ZINC, SERUM FAAS WITH D2 CORRECTION COLLECT WHOLE BLOOD  IN SPECIAL GREINER VACCUTAINER WITH GEL AND YELLOW RING IN THE CAP AVAILABLE FROM SRL  CENTRIFUGE DO NOT SEPERATE SERUM.  SERUM MORNING FASTING SPECIMEN SHOULD BE COLLECTED. 2-8°C (7 DAYS); F ( >7 – 30 DAYS) India Zinc  is  an essential  element which  acts as  a critical  co­factor in  various  enzyme systems and  is  required for  active wound healing. Zinc deficiency occurs due  to  lack  of dietary  absorption or loss  after absorption.  Zinc excess  is  not a major  clinical concern.  The only known  effect of  excessive  zinc ingestion is interference  with copper  absorption leading  to hypocupremia. This  assay helps to detect zinc deficiency. Elevated serum zinc is of minimal clinical interest.
1860 9145U ZINC, URINE SPOT FAAS WITH D2 CORRECTION SPOT  URINE IN METAL FREE SCINTILLATION BOTTLE  AVAILABLE FROM SRL (NO PRESERVATIVE) 2-8°C (5 DAYS); F ( >5 – 30 DAYS) India Zinc  is  an essential  element which  acts as  a critical  co­factor in  various  enzyme systems and  is  required for  active wound healing. Zinc deficiency occurs due  to  lack  of dietary  absorption or loss  after absorption.  Zinc excess  is  not a major  clinical concern.  The only known  effect of  excessive  zinc ingestion is interference  with copper  absorption leading  to hypocupremia. This  assay  is useful  for identifying  the cause  of abnormal serum zinc.
1861 1956 NSCLC THERAPY PANEL (
RD1405  [EGFR MUTATION DETECTION] + 6028F  [ALK  (EML4-ALK) FISH] [+]
6032F  [ROS1 GENE REARRANGEMENT BY FISH])
Pyrosequencing, FISH TISSUE IN NORMAL SALINE /PARAFFIN BLOCK/UNSTAINED SLIDES – 5 NOS/CELL BLOCKS+ CLINICAL HISTORY 2, 5:0930 HRS India 0
1862 RD1421T ONCOBRCA-NEXT (  BRCA3  [BRCA 1 GENE MUTATIONS]
BRCA4  [BRCA2  GENE MUTATIONS )
NGS Paraffin Block A India 0
1863 Z412K PD-L1 (SP 142) Ventana IHC FFPE block + CLINICAL HISTORY A India 0
1864 4555 COLORECTAL CANCER PROFILE PCR TISSUE IN FORMALIN/PARAFFIN BLOCK/UNSTAINED SLIDES – 5 NOS/CELL BLOCKS+CLINICAL HISTORY A India 0
1865 8043 ACUTE LEUKEMIA DIAGNOSTIC & PROGNOSTIC PANEL Flowcytometry, Cytogenetics, FISH, PCR BM-Heparin, EDTA WB, Clinical History A India 0
1866 7899 ALL CYTOGENETICS PANEL CELL CULTURE/FISH BONE MARROW/WB WB (≥70% blast cell) SODIUM HEPARIN  SPECIMEN TO REACH US WITHIN 48 HRS + CLINICAL HISTORY IN SPECIFIED FORMAT, BLOOD PICTURE(CBC REPORT) AND MEDICATION OF THE PATIENT ON THE TRF IN SPECIMEN COLUMN A India 0
1867 2015 MINIMAL RESIDUAL DISEASE (MRD) BY FLOW CYTOMETRY Flowcytometry BM-EDTA + Clinical history (Sample should reach within 24hrs of collection). Sample should reach laboratory preferably within 24 hrs of collection. Filled history sheet, initial Immunophenotyping report/data Refrigerated        (2-8*C) India 0